Equal Provision?

"20 Then He began to rebuke the cities in which most of His mighty works had been done, because they did not repent: 21 “Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the mighty works which were done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. 22 But I say to you, it will be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon in the day of judgment than for you. 23 And you, Capernaum, who[e] are exalted to heaven, will be brought down to Hades; for if the mighty works which were done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. 24 But I say to you that it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment than for you.” (Matt. 11: 20-24 nkjv)

There are many Christians who believe that God has provided each person with all he or she needs to be saved from sin and death. Many of them also think that God would be unjust, not good and benevolent, were he not to provide every man an opportunity to be saved, or stated another way, did not provide every man the means of salvation. Here is where the debate between "Arminians" and "Calvinists" becomes particularly focused. 

There are several questions related to this debate on the extent of provision as respects providing each with "what it takes" (or requires) to be saved. One thing that is not disputed is whether the substitutionary or sacrificial death of Christ, and his resurrection and ascension, are necessary means for anyone's salvation. Arminian soteriology says that God has provided this sacrifice for all men, that every man was represented by Christ when he died for other's sins.  Further, all agree that Christ dying for a man's sins, though required, is not the only thing required, for the atonement or propitiation must be applied in time to sinners when they believe and are regenerated or born again. Further, nearly all, except the Hardshells and some other Hyper Calvinists, say that it is applied when one by faith "receives the atonement." (Rom. 5: 11) Further, it is also nigh universally agreed that one must hear about Christ and the good news in order to believe in him and in it, per what Paul taught in Romans 10: 14-17. 

So, have all heard the gospel? Do not many die not ever having heard about Christ? Or, know nothing of the bible? Yes they do. So, what do those who advocate that every sinner is given all necessary means and provisions for being saved do? They will say God provided all an opportunity to be saved by dying for each and every person. But, why does he not also give everyone the gospel message? 

The above text is difficult for those who say that 1) God has provided to all what is needed for salvation, and 2) faith and gospel knowledge is necessary for salvation. The text says that the inhabitants of Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom, et. als., would have repented had they seen the miracles. This is what is called a "counter factual" in the Molinist debate. Not only does God foresee everything that actually happens, he also sees what may have happened had a thing or things been altered. 

Now the question that arises in view of this text is this: "if God wanted those peoples to be saved more than anything, why did he not have those miracles performed?" That is a difficult question for Arminians, in my opinion. They may respond by saying - "well they still had the word of God as a means and could have been saved by their repentance." And, in response, I would agree. However, it does show that God knows what means will be effective to make penitent believers in any given case. And, it shows that God does not give all equal means of salvation. It shows that God, on some level, desired the salvation of the Sodomites, et al., and provided some means for it, but not as much means as he could have. And, I think all would acknowledge that not all sinners have equal opportunities and means for salvation. So, God made a choice not to give those added means to the Sodomites and others, knowing that it would secure their damnation.

In an article at Bible Tools web page (see here), Dan Elmore is cited as saying, under the heading "What the Bible says about Equal Opportunity for Salvation": 

"It is clear that God is not a respecter of persons, giving everyone an equal opportunity for salvation and judging all by the same standards."  (emphasis mine)

This would be a good proposition for debate among Calvinists and Arminians. Does God in fact give everyone an equal opportunity for salvation? 

Chorazin, Capernaum, and Bethsaida, had "A" (the means of the word of God) and "B" (the miracles performed as confirmation of the word) and were not brought to repentance and faith (or saved). Tyre, Sidon, and Sodom had "A" but not "B". 

Christ says that those who had only "A" are lost, but had they had both "A" and "B", then they would have been saved. So, it is proven then that 1) all are not given equal means and opportunities to be saved, and 2) Christ knows, as omniscient being, what is required in any individual case to change a person's heart and mind. 

The doctrine of election is God's choice to make certain that some are saved, and in that choice he gives each chosen sinner what he needs to come to faith and repentance. Though it is not the only reason, yet we can say that one reason why the citizens of Sodom, Tyre, and Sidon did not repent is because they did not have miracles "provided" for them. That is all that my understanding of Calvinism affirms. God applies more force, more power, more means, more of this and that, in the case of the elect than he does with the non elect and this difference in the degree of power exerted is the determining factor.  

Further, it is with this understanding that most Christians pray, including those like Elmore and other Arminians. When they pray "God save Jack and Mary," they thereby confess that God can save them at any time he chooses. When they pray "God, bring him to his senses," or "God, influence him even more," etc., they are acknowledging that God does not operate equally upon all. Did God not use more means in the conversion of Paul than other Christians? 

Many who hold the view of Elmore operate under the assumption that, in every individual case, God has the same degree of desire for their salvation and operates to the same level of influence towards their salvation. But, that is simply not what the scriptures show us. 

God does discriminate, if you want to call it that. He does "make a difference" based upon his own sovereign choice.  

"And of some have compassion, making a difference: and others save with fear, pulling them out of the fire." (Jude 1: 22-23 kjv)

This is what Christians are to do. They should not treat everyone equally. So, if it is right for Christians to choose in this manner, why not God? Do Christians or God become respecter of persons when they make such a difference in how they treat others? Wrote Paul along this line:

"For who makes you differ from another? And what do you have that you did not receive? Now if you did indeed receive it, why do you boast as if you had not received it?" (I Cor. 4: 7 kjv)

God is not a respecter of persons because his choice or making a difference is not based upon any natural distinction between people or based upon how one was superior in some way to another. It seems to me that those who say that God chooses those who make a certain "free will" decision are saying God chose them because they made themselves different from others. 

Further, the bible says that God "had respect" to Abel and to his offering. (Gen. 4: 4) So, God does respect persons in some sense and in some sense he does not. The question is this - "why does he respect anyone?" Is it not that he respects those who he himself made to differ?

Who can say that the heathen who died without any knowledge of the one true God or of his way of salvation through Christ (such as the American Indians before the Pilgrims came with the word of God) had the same opportunities as Sodom, Tyre, Sidon, Capernaum, etc.? Or as a person born into a Christian home where the bible was read every day and prayer offered to God daily?

Does God Discriminate?

The word "discriminate" or "discrimination" may mean one of two things. It may mean to "make an unjust or prejudicial distinction in the treatment of different categories of people, especially on the grounds of ethnicity, sex, age, or disability." Or it may simply mean to "recognize a distinction," or to "differentiate." So, we say "he has discriminating taste." So, God does not discriminate per the first definition, but he does per the secondary definition. If he makes you to differ from another, then he does "make a distinction" or "differentiate" among men. The big question is not whether he made you to differ, but why does he make you different? That can only be answered by saying "for so it seemed good in your sight, holy Father." (See Matt. 11: 26)

On April 9, 1907 Elder C.H. Cayce, Primitive Baptist debater, met Missionary Baptist Elder, I.N. Penick in Martin, Tennessee and one of the four propositions was this (see here):

"The scriptures teach that in the death of Christ sufficient provision was made for the salvation of all the race of mankind." 

Now, I can both affirm and deny that proposition. I have always believed the expression about the atoning death of Christ which says it is "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect." The sufferings and death of Christ are sufficient to save every single sinner. But, it does not save all. Universal salvation is a grievous error and one taught against in scripture. On the other hand, "sufficient provision" is not true if it means that nothing other than the atonement itself is necessary for salvation, for certainly hearing the gospel and believing and obeying it are necessary, and this has not been provided to all, as we have observed. 

Many have died who did not have the means of salvation, the gospel or word that is necessary for faith (Rom. 10), which faith is necessary for salvation.

Some Arminians deal with this conundrum on how atonement is provided for all but the gospel has not been provided for all by denying that the word of God or gospel message has been denied to all or that it is necessary to have the word of God to be saved (affirming that if one lives up to the light of natural revelation, then he is saved). But, that is not tenable according to the plain declarations of scripture. 

So, to me, the doctrine of election simply tells us that God chose to so work or influence someone to a greater degree than he does in common with all, that he exerts not little power (or influence) in the cases of the elect, but that he exerts compelling power. (See Eph. 1: 19-20) It also means that he provides a person who is chosen with the gospel message and providential influences sufficient to ensure their repentance.