I have stated for the longest time that time salvation is a paradigm. In fact, this is how I often refer to it when writing about it. It is not simply a single additional point of doctrine which one adds to his theology with little consequence. Adherence to it has major repercussions on leading points of doctrine such as regeneration, justification, sanctification, faith, and repentance. They must be re-worked in the light of its teachings and given alternate definitions from what is more traditional teaching on the subject. Many passages in the Bible containing certain buzzwords are affected, and must therefore be addressed as well. Its advocates know what these words are, and so do I. An alarm goes off in the head when saved, perish, everlasting, faith, born, begotten, etc. are confronted in a text of scripture. This is when eisegesis rears its head as established premises are brought to bear upon the text.
One place in the Bible where this occurs is Romans 11:11-15.
Instead of writing a long posting on the truth taught behind this passage, I thought I would simply provide a list of questions in an attempt to stir the mind. All questions have answers. What are the answers to those below?
11. I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but [rather] through their fall salvation [is come] unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy. 12. Now if the fall of them [be] the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? 13. For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office: 14. If by any means I may provoke to emulation [them which are] my flesh, and might save some of them 15. For if the casting away of them [be] the reconciling of the world, what [shall] the receiving [of them be], but life from the dead?
1) Is verse 11 treating of eternal or time salvation?
2) Did time salvation come to the Gentiles through the fall of the Jews?
3) Should the context determine what kind of salvation is under consideration
in verse 14?
4) Does the Apostle Paul switch from writing of eternal salvation in verse 11
to time salvation in verse 14?
5) Does he then switch back to eternal salvation in verse 15?
6) Did the casting away of the Jews result in a temporal reconciliation of the
world (v.15)?
7) If eternal salvation is under consideration in verse 11 and 15, is it
reasonable that the same is true with verse 14 which lies between them?
8) Does switching between eternal and time salvation, and back again,
interrupt the flow of the apostle’s thought?
9) Paul says that he “might save some of them”. Which one of the following is
true?
a) Paul would save them.
b) God would save them without Paul.
c) God would save them through Paul.
10) If Paul saved them, does this mean that God didn't?
11) If God saved them, why does Paul state he would?
12) Was Paul an instrument in the temporal salvation of some?
13) What premises are influencing your interpretation of this passage?
1 comment:
Dear Brother Kevin:
Those are some hard questions for promoters of time salvation! I pray that those Hardshells who read the questions will attempt to answer them honestly in the fear of God.
Blessings,
Stephen
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