With this chapter we will review more directly Hassell's arguments for the "no means" view of salvation. As we will see, he offers the common arguments that were being made during the debate over means, which debate occurred most vehemently in the last two decades of the nineteenth century, as we have seen.
Hassell's Polemic on the Means Question
We will begin by looking at "Questions and Answers," a publication of Elder R.H. Pittman in 1935 wherein he gives Elder Sylvester Hassell's answers to bible questions and a few of which Pittman answers himself. You can read them here. We will begin with this question and Hassell's answer to it (emphasis mine):
"Q. Does God use any means in regeneration?
A. None whatever, any more than He does in creation or in resurrection, for regeneration is a creation in Christ (which is all of God, Eph. 2:10; II Cor. 5:17,18), and it is a resurrection from the death in trespasses and sins, which God alone effects by His immediate and irresistible power (Eph. 2:1-10; John 5:25; Ezek. 16:6; Mark 5:41,42; Luke 7:14,15; John 11:43,44). It is being begotten or born of God, with which neither the person born nor any other creature has anything to do (John 1:12,13; 3:3, 5-8; I John 2:29; 5:1). It is a direct quickening by the Three-One God, the Father, Son, and Spirit (Jer. 31:33,34; John 5:21; 6:63). It is the giving of spiritual, eternal, and divine life by God to the sinner who was previously destitute of that life (Rom. 6:23; John 10:28; 17:1-3; I John 5:11,12). It is the free gift by the Three-One God of Himself to all His loved and chosen people, to dwell in and with them forever (Gen. 15:1; Psalm 48:14; 73:26; John 3:16; Gal. 2:20; Eph. 5:25-27; Titus 2:14; John 6:51,58; Col. 1:27; Ezek. 36:21-38; Zech. 12:10; 13:9; Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4,5; 2:17,18; John 7:37-39; 14:17; II Cor. 6:16; Eph. 2:18-22). The Lord Jesus Christ, our only Master, commands us to call no man on earth our father, that is our spiritual father, for one is our Father who is in heaven (Matt. 23:8-10). Therefore, when the Apostle Paul calls himself the father of the Corinthian Church (I Cor. 4:15), he means, as he himself explains his language, not their spiritual, but only their ministerial father (II Cor. 3:3), the minister by whom, or under whose preaching, they first believed the gospel, even, he says, as the Lord gave to every man; he was, under God, the founder or planter of that church (I Cor. 3:5, 6) and it was sinful "carnality" for them to say that they were "of him" (I Cor. 3:4). Christ declares that only they who are of God (that is, as explained by the Greek lexicons, "born of God") hear God's words (John 8:47) ; only they that hear the voice of the Son of God live (John 5:25) - indeed, He Himself is their life (John 11:25; 14:19; Col. 3:4). "God, according to His abundant mercy hath begotten us again or regenerated us unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Christ from the dead, to an inheritance incorruptible," etc. (I Pet. 1:3-5). Believing in Christ as the Son of God and our Saviour is not a part, but an evidence of our regeneration (John 1:12,13; 6:47; I John 5:1)."
It will take all of this chapter to respond to this polemic of the great Hassell. I will take each argument one by one and rebut them. However, I want the reader to notice the text at the head of this chapter. It uproots the "anti-means" view of the "Primitive Baptists." Over the past one hundred and seventy five years or so they have worked hard at twisting this text so as to not contradict their anti-means view. Many of them will say that "the word of God" in the text is not the written word of God, but is a word that God speaks himself to a dead sinner, on the subconscious level, when he says to the sinner "live." Some say the "word" is Christ. Clearly, however, the word of God in the context is shown to be the written word of God.
In the opening words of I Peter chapter one Peter speaks of the "faith" or "belief" of the people to whom he is writing. Obviously what is believed is the written inspired word of God. (vss. 5-8) In fact, in verses 8-9 he says:
"Though now you do not see Him, yet believing, you rejoice with joy inexpressible and full of glory, receiving the end of your faith--the salvation of your souls."
What salvation is this? Is it not that salvation which occurs when one is born again, regenerated, and quickened or resurrected out of spiritual death? The salvation of the text comes as a result of faith. Since the Hardshells do not believe that faith is necessary for salvation, they will say that any text that has salvation resulting from faith cannot be eternal salvation, but must be a temporal deliverance which is not necessary for eternal salvation. However, the next verse tells us what salvation is meant, for Peter says:
"Of this salvation the prophets have inquired and searched carefully, who prophesied of the grace that would come to you." (vs. 10)
Any unbiased person knows that this salvation is eternal salvation in all its aspects, including initial salvation, which includes being reborn of the Spirit, regenerated, quickened, etc. Peter says this salvation is a result of "the sufferings of Christ" (vs. 11) and involves "the things which now have been reported to you through those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven--things which angels desire to look into" (vs. 12). "The things reported to you" are the facts of the "gospel" which is "preached to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven" and which "things" also "the angels desire to look into." So, all this shows that it is eternal salvation that is the subject and it is by faith that this salvation is received. It is absurd for the Hardshells to say that this salvation is a mere time salvation.
In verse twenty one Peter speaks of those who "believe in God" through Christ and whose "faith and hope is in God." Faith involves believing the word of God. In verse twenty two he says "Since you have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit..." Here we see how the salvation of the context involves being "purified" of sin and how this purification, this "washing of regeneration" (Titus 3: 5), is through "obeying the truth through the Spirit." So, again, we see how the "word of God" by which a person is "born again" is "the truth," the truth of the word of God and the truth of the Gospel. This "word of God" is also identified as that which the old testament prophet had in mind when he wrote:
"...the word of God which lives and abides forever, 24 because "All flesh is as grass, And all the glory of man as the flower of the grass. The grass withers, And its flower falls away, 25 But the word of the Lord endures forever."
This is a citation from Isaiah 40: 5-8 and Peter is quoting it. Reading that passage shows that by the "word of God" is meant the words God has spoken and "good tidings" or the gospel. (vs. 9) In fact, the words "all flesh is grass..." are the words of God. Then Peter sums it all up by saying "Now this is the word which by the gospel was preached to you." (vs. 25) By "the word" (logos) means "the message." So we understand it to say "this is the message which by the gospel was preached unto you." Wrote John Gill on I Peter 1: 23:
"by the Word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever; for the incorruptible seed, and the ever living and abiding word, are two distinct things; though interpreters generally confound them: and by "the word of God" is either meant the essential Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; who is concerned in regeneration as well as the Father and the Spirit; by whose resurrection, and in consequence of it, the elect of God are begotten again; and who, as the Word, is able to build up all the sanctified ones, and give them the inheritance they are born heirs unto: or the Gospel, the word of truth, which is made use of as a means of begetting souls again; and the rather, since it seems to be so interpreted, 1 Peter 1:25...and here added, to show that he can give power and efficacy to his word, to regenerate and quicken, and will continue to preserve and make it useful to all his saving purposes...Or else with the word of God, and is true both of Christ, and of the Gospel...The Gospel also may be said to live, in opposition to the law, which is the killing letter; and because it points out the way of life and salvation to sinners; and is a means of quickening dead sinners, and of ingenerating that faith by which men live on Christ..."
Gill is correct in saying that "of incorruptible seed" is not synonymous with "by the word of God." The Greek word for "of" is "ek" which means "out of" or "from" and denotes the source while "by" is from "dia" a preposition that means "though." The birth being "through" the gospel does not negate, as the Hardshells argue, that the birth is "of incorruptible seed" or "of God."
Gill also says that though it is true that the new birth is through Christ (the Word), yet he says that in the text the "word of God" denotes "the word of truth" or "the Gospel" and is a means or instrument by which regeneration is effected. In the previous chapter I cited the words of Hassell who said: "In careless expressions some Baptists have advanced this error" (of the gospel being a means in regeneration), "but the same men, when taking into consideration the entire teaching of the Scriptures on this point, have, in their more exact expressions, repudiated it." Is this the case with Dr. Gill, who the Hardshells claim believed as they do, i.e. that the gospel is no means in regeneration? Is Gill uttering "careless expressions" in his commentary?
Further, it is the apostle John who speaks of Christ as the "Word of God." No other new testament writer gives this title to Jesus. Though some bible teachers will interpret other texts that speak of the "word of God," written by other new testament writers, as referencing Jesus, yet those texts are not speaking of Jesus, even though they may be applicable to Jesus. (See John 1: 1, 14; 5: 7; Rev. 19: 13)
In the above argumentation of Hassell it is quite striking that he does not cite a single verse that says that God does not use a human instrument, or the written word of God, or gospel preaching, in saving sinners, in giving them spiritual and eternal life. He only makes logical arguments or uses deductive logic and even in doing this he fails. He says that being initially saved is a being created, a being made alive, a being born, and all that is true. But, where is the verse that says that God cannot do these things through human instruments? Even Jesus's miraculous birth was through human means, through Mary. Isaac too was miraculously "born after the Spirit" (Gal. 4: 29) but it was through the human means of his parents. Not only is there no text that affirms that God does NOT use means in salvation but there are numerous texts, such as I Peter 1: 23, that affirm that he does use those very means.
God raised a valley of dry dead bones through the prophesying of the prophet Ezekiel. (Eze. 37) God raised the dead through Elijah, Elisha, Peter, and Paul. In fact, when Jesus sent out his ambassadors, he told them these words:
"And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand. Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils: freely ye have received, freely give." (Matt. 10: 7-8 kjv)
So, that argument about God not being able to use human means to raise the dead is false. I am surprised that a man of Hassell's intelligence would argue in this manner.
Next, birth is also called a "procreation." So, a birth is a creation. So, to say that God does not use human means in creation is false. I am God's creation, but he created me through procreation by both my mother and father.
Sylvester's father, elder C.B. Hassell wrote:
"On the contrary we believe, the gospel is God's system of salvation for ruined man, and that He saves them by grace of His and not by works of theirs. Kehukeeites believe, that the Saviour took the law place and stead of his people, and for them and in their behalf fulfilled it to a punctilio...This they are made to believe by the teaching of the Holy Spirit, and this belief is counted to them for righteousness without the deeds of the law. They are then no longer under the law but under grace--no longer dead in trespasses and sins but alive to holiness,-- having their fruit unto the same and the end thereof everlasting life. This belief in Christ, caused by the teaching of the Holy Spirit, is their creation anew in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that they should walk in; and henceforward they abound in good works to God, begotten by the active principle of grace within them, not from a principle of slavish fear, by which they expect to escape eternal punishment." (March 8, 1845 issue of "The Primitive Baptist" periodical; See here)
The senior Hassell says that becoming a "new creation" in Christ is the result of having come to a "belief in Christ" through the Gospel and "the teaching of the Holy Spirit." Was the senior Hassell speaking carelessly or giving an exact expression?
Sylvester says that when Paul says that he had "begotten" the Corinthian believers that it does not refer to the new birth. Why not? Does he not say this because of his presupposition which says "God uses no human means or preachers of the word to bring people to a spiritual birth"? His only argument is that Paul cannot possibly refer to the new birth for it would contradict the prohibition of Christ to "call no man father." Yet, Paul calls himself the father of the Corinthians. Hassell says that Paul was not a "spiritual" father but was a "ministerial" father, as if being a ministerial father was not a spiritual relationship! Further, Paul does not say that he is only the ministerial father of the preachers in the Corinthian church, but was a father to them all, to all who were begotten by his preaching. "Father in the ministry" is generally used to denote a senior elder being a mentor to younger elders and is not generally used to denote a relationship of a senior elder to every lay member. Notice what the apostle John wrote:
"I write to you, fathers,
Because you have known Him who is from the beginning.
I write to you, young men,
Because you have overcome the wicked one.
I write to you, little children,
Because you have known the Father. I have written to you, fathers,
Because you have known Him who is from the beginning.
I have written to you, young men,
Because you are strong, and the word of God abides in you,
And you have overcome the wicked one." (I John 2: 13-14 nkjv)
In these verses nearly all Bible commentators agree that by fathers, young men, and little children, John is speaking of the level of spiritual growth among the Christian community. So, the apostle John did in fact address certain church members as "fathers." Was he violating the injunction of Christ by so doing? Many in the history of the Christian church, including Baptist history, have called aged ministers "father" and the aged holy women "mother." John Gill on Matthew 23: 9 and "calling no man father" wrote the following in his commentary:
"And call no man your father upon the earth,....Not but that children may, and should call their natural parents, fathers; and such who have been instrumental in the conversion of souls, may be rightly called by them their spiritual fathers..."
Clearly what Jesus is forbidding is to call anyone their heavenly Father, their God. Paul was a father in the sense that he was God's instrument in giving spiritual birth to sinners. Sometimes Paul speaks of himself as the father or sire of those who he brought to faith in Christ and sometimes he spoke of himself as the mother in that birth. So he wrote to the Galatians saying "My little children, of whom I travail in birth again until Christ be formed in you." (4: 19) God also refers to himself as both Father and Mother to his begotten children. For instance, Isaiah 49:15 asks, "Can a mother forget the baby at her breast and have no compassion on the child she has borne?" Additionally, Isaiah 66:13 quotes God saying, "As a mother comforts her child, so will I comfort you." In the New Testament (Matthew 23:37), Jesus describes His protective love for Jerusalem as a mother hen gathering her chicks under her wings.
Elder S. Hassell also says that in being regenerated that Christ comes to abide in a person. He says that regeneration
"is the free gift by the Three-One God of Himself to all His loved and chosen people, to dwell in and with them forever." This inward dwelling of the Father, Son, and Spirit, comes under the doctrinal category of
"union with Christ." So, how do the scriptures explain how this happens? How does a sinner enter into Christ and how does Christ enter into a sinner? I have numerous articles on this question and show that union with Christ is by faith in the word and gospel of God. (See
here,
here,
here,
here,
here)
There are many bible passages that speak of how union with Christ is what brings salvation. In this post I show that Jesus said that people
"believe into Christ." (See
here) Hassell even says that Christ is the Life, and agrees with the apostle John who said
"whoever has the Son has life." (I John 5: 12) So, how does a person come into possession of Christ? Answer: it is by faith, by
"receiving" Christ. Paul spoke of it in this manner:
"But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." (I Cor. 6: 17) Being
"joined" to Christ is done by an act of faith as the context shows. It is a being married to Christ and again this is done by a choice that is integrally involved in believing, receiving, and trusting in Christ. The apostle John also wrote:
"He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." (John 1: 11-13 nkjv)
The Greek word for "children" (tekna) denotes one who is a child by birth. When were they made children of God by a birth of God? It was when they received Christ and believed in his name. How do they believe in him? It is by hearing the word of God that informs about Jesus. So wrote the apostle Paul:
"14 How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?
15 And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things! 16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?
17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God."
In "Keach's catechism," reflecting the faith expressed in the 1689 London Confession of Baptists and attached to it, we read:
"Q. 34. How does the Spirit apply to us the redemption purchased by Christ?
A. The Spirit applies to us the redemption purchased by Christ, by working faith in us, and thereby uniting us to Christ in our effectual calling."
Surely this was not a careless expression but an exact expression.
Hercules Collins was a leading Particular Baptist pastor in London and was a signer of both the 1644 and 1689 London Baptist Confession. In his Catechism, published in 1680 (read here), we read:Q. 21 What is true faith?
A. True faith is not only a knowledge and conviction that everything God reveals in his Word is true; it is also a deep-rooted assurance, created in me by the Holy Spirit through the gospel, that, out of sheer grace earned for us by Christ, not only others, but I too, have had my sins forgiven, have been made forever right with God, and have been granted salvation.
1John 17:3, 17; Heb. 11:1-3; James 2:19
2Rom. 4:18-21; 5:1; 10:10; Heb. 4:14-16
3Matt. 16:15-17; John 3:5; Acts 16:14
4Rom. 1:16; 10:17; 1 Cor. 1:21
5Rom. 3:21-26; Gal. 2:16; Eph. 2:8-10
6Gal. 2:20
7Rom. 1:17; Heb. 10:10
It is believed that William Collins, not Keach, wrote the Baptist catechism. He is no relation to Hercules Collins. Both were signatories of the 1689 confession. Both these old Baptist catechisms show that Hassell told a falsehood when he said that only "some" Baptists taught that regeneration was effected by the preaching of the word of God and that the ones who taught it did not speak precisely and contradicted themselves.
Elder S. Hassell also wrote in the above citation:
"Christ declares that only they who are of God (that is, as explained by the Greek lexicons, "born of God") hear God's words (John 8:47) ; only they that hear the voice of the Son of God live (John 5:25) - indeed, He Himself is their life (John 11:25; 14:19; Col. 3:4)."
Hassell and his Hardshell brethren often cite these words of Jesus:
"Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live." (John 5: 25 kjv)
Hassell and his brethren correctly say that this text is dealing with being made alive spiritually. However, they will contend that hearing the voice of the Son of God is heard apart from the written word of God and never heard in the preaching of the gospel. Of course, that is simply a case of stubbornly resisting the truth of the text. However, my point in citing this text is to show how their interpretation nevertheless has a spiritually dead sinner hearing the word of Jesus before he is made alive. That being so, John 8: 47 cannot be made to contradict it, but this is exactly what Hassell does. He says that a person must be "of God" by a spiritual birth or resurrection before he can hear the word or voice of Jesus, thus contradicting his interpretation of John 5: 25.
John 8: 47 is not teaching that a person must be born of God before he hears God's word. That would contradict what John 5: 25 says. Sinners come to spiritual life by hearing the voice or word of Jesus. What John 8: 47 is saying is that no one is "of God" who has not heard the word of God. Hassell said further:
"Believing in Christ as the Son of God and our Saviour is not a part, but an evidence of our regeneration (John 1:12,13; 6:47; I John 5:1)."
But, if faith is only an evidence of salvation, then it is not a necessary condition for it, and this is what "Primitive Baptists" believe. But, the scriptures abound with testimony to the fact that faith is a condition for salvation. So Paul wrote:
"For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them." (Eph. 2: 8-10 nkjv)
This salvation is the "quickening" of verse one of the chapter. It is the same as being God's "workmanship" and being "created in Christ Jesus." Paul says that regeneration, quickening, rebirth, etc., is "by faith in Christ Jesus." Hassell cites John 1: 12-13 as a proof that faith is no condition of salvation, but it is bewildering that he would do so for it plainly says just the opposite as we have shown already. John says that people received Christ and believed in him in order to have the privilege of becoming the children of God.
Also, I John 5: 1 does not say that faith in Christ is only an evidence of rebirth but is what is essential to it. If you do not believe that Jesus is the Christ then you have not been born of God. That is what John is saying and it flatly contradicts what the Hardshells teach. See my post (
here) on that text. The same with John 6: 47 that Hassell cites. In that text Jesus said
"whoever believes has eternal life." How does that statement say that faith is not necessary for obtaining eternal life? Jesus however is saying that if you do not believe in him, then you do not have eternal life, but that is just what the Hardshells deny.