In the previous chapter we took notice of the fact that Christ descended into Hades as the conqueror of Death, and as the one with "the keys of Death and Hades," and we took notice of his appearing to the righteous on the side of the Gulf of Hades where Lazarus reclined on the bosom of father Abraham and was fairing well (being comforted around an implied festive table of the redeemed family of God), and what his purpose in going there was, which was to "lead captivity captive," to take them out of Hades to Heaven's Paradise.
Though I will have some more to say about Christ' appearance to the comforted ones of upper Hades, I wish to first discuss the disputed text of I Peter 3: 18-20 and of its statement that Christ "in spirit," when put to death in the flesh, "went and preached to the spirits in prison" (KJV). Those "preached to" are identified in the text as being those who were at one time "disobedient" (had rejected God and his word) when they lived in the days of Noah. So, this would be a picture of his appearing to the side of the gulf of Hades where Dives and the condemned existed in suffering and hell fire.
A few chapters back we listed the questions that we intended to answer as we looked at the afterlife of Jesus Christ, discussing where his soul or spirit went after his death on the cross. Here they are again.
1) The place called Hades described
2) Biblical Cosmology
3) Christ Descent Into Hades
4) Conquering of Hades by Christ and the Church
5) Believers Moved From Hades to Heaven
6) Unbelievers Sentence Announced and Inmates Addressed in Proclamation
7) No Offers Of Pardon Given (salvation after death)
8) Christ Becomes Lord Of Hades & The Damned
The questions in bold letters have been addressed, although we will still have things to say in relation to them as we discuss the remaining questions (the questions, as well as the answers, are so interconnected). In this chapter we will be focused on question number six, dealing with the kind of preaching Christ did while his spirit was in Hades.
If it is proven that Christ in spirit did descend to the Underworld, to Sheol or Hades, to "Hell" (and it is), then why is it difficult to believe that he would have something to say to the occupants thereof upon his arrival? Did not Jesus say that he would be "in the heart of the earth" for three days and nights, during the time his body was lifeless? Did we not see where Peter, on the Day of Pentecost, applied the words spoken concerning king David, "you will not leave my soul in hell" (Sheol or Hades), to Christ? If that truth is accepted, then why the great reluctance to believe that Christ said something to the inhabitants of the Underworld?
I expect he had things to say to all the inhabitants of Hades and the spirit world in general, and something in particular to say to certain distinct groups within that place, chiefly the saved versus the damned. Further, that is exactly what we do find in the scriptures. That is more believable than visualizing Christ in Hades for three days "dumb before his shearers" so to speak. We cannot envision the words "opened not his mouth" as a description of his time in the Underworld of Hades.
Therefore, having accepted as a truth the fact that 1) Christ in his soul or spirit went to the Underworld, the place where all spirits of deceased humans go, and that 2) Christ had something to say to the peoples there, our debate should then move to the question of his message to the inhabitants of the Underworld. We would then be discussing the "big elephant in the room" theologically speaking, and rather discussing 1) the question as to whether there is a chance of salvation after death for anyone, and 2) whether the "preaching" of Christ to the wicked souls in Hades, to the condemned "spirits in prison," implies his offering them a chance of salvation.
That Disputed Text
"For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit, by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison, who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water." (I Peter 3: 18-20 nkjv)
The Apostle Peter, who wrote the above words, made some interesting comments on the writings of fellow Apostle, Paul. One of them was the observation that Paul wrote in his epistles "some things hard to be understood."(II Peter 3: 16) Well, Peter may be accused of doing the same thing for the above words of Peter are also "hard to understand," or at least, hard to accept. People who read the bible often read things in it that they find "hard to understand" and/or "hard to accept." The Lord Jesus Christ had many "hard sayings" himself. They were either hard to understand, hard to accept, or both. (See John 6: 6 - "this is a hard saying, who can hear it?")
Through the years I had not, till recently, fully accepted the interpretation I now do on this much disputed passage. I used to say, as do many Protestant commentators and bible teachers, that the preaching Christ did in spirit was done by Christ preaching through Noah, and that the preaching was done to persons while they were once alive and corporeal (though they were not so at the time Peter said what he said, being then "spirits in prison"). But, I never could fully accept that view or feel comfortable with it being correct. There was a strong nagging doubt that such was the right interpretation and an inner thought that I was not just accepting what the text seems clearly to say.
I had a reluctance to accept the obvious, as do many others (especially among those who are non Catholic). Yet, I see now that there was really nothing to fear in believing that Christ descended into Hades and spoke to the inhabitants of that world, to the righteous who are with Abraham, to the unrighteous who are with Dives in tormenting fire.
Yes, some theologians, such as among the Roman Catholics, Mormons, etc. have said things about Christ' afterlife appearances to the dead spirits in Hades that are heretical, but the fact of his descent is not the error, and many Protestants and Evangelicals believe in it. For instance, to affirm that the purpose of Christ preaching to the disobedient in Hades was to give them a chance of salvation is a serious error and is not taught in the bible, though it is in some respects an appealing idea. We will address that error later.
Wayne Grudem (1988), well known bible commentator and seminary professor (Baptist), identifies five commonly held views on the interpretation of this verse (See here). They are:
View 1: When Noah was building the ark, Christ 'in spirit' was in Noah preaching repentance and righteousness through him to unbelievers who were on the earth then but are now 'spirits in prison' (people in Hell)."
View 2: After Christ died, he went and preached to people in Hell, offering them a second chance of salvation."
View 3: After Christ died, he went and preached to people in Hell, proclaiming to them that he had triumphed over them and their condemnation was final."
View 4: After Christ died, he proclaimed release to people who had repented just before they died in the flood, and led them out of their imprisonment (in Purgatory) into Heaven.
View 5: After Christ died (or: after he rose but before he ascended into Heaven), he travelled to Hell and proclaimed triumph over the fallen angels who had sinned by marrying human women before the flood."
These views revolve around the identity of the spirits in prison, the time in which the preaching took place, and the content of the preaching."
View number one is the one I used to strongly lean to and acknowledge and is a common view among Protestant groups. This view does see the people who are "spirits in prison" as being the spirits of the damned who are in torment in Hades. What they reject is the idea that the preaching Christ did was when he was dead, or among the dead in Hades. However, I don't think that interpretation is what the grammar and syntax of the text indicates, being what we call a "stretch." That is the reason for my doubts about such interpretation prior to finally "coming around" to the correct interpretation.
View number two is the view of Roman Catholics and no Protestant (that I am aware), other than Mormons, would affirm that Christ preaching in Hades was for the purpose of giving an opportunity for the damned to be saved. Of why this view is an error I have already somewhat spoken but will sum up and enlarge later in this series.
View number three represents the teaching of the bible in my view. We have already to some degree shown this to be true, and will yet offer additional proofs and reasons for it being true. Since it is clear that Christ went to the Underworld, and since it is only logical and reasonable to think that he did not remain silent while there, why would we deny that one of the things he would be "proclaiming to them" would be "that he had triumphed over them and their condemnation was final"?
View number four is partially right and partially wrong. Affirming that Christ proclaimed victory and release from Hades for the righteous from old testament times is true, but the people specifically mentioned as being specifically spoken to by Christ, are they who were "disobedient," and who died in their sins, who died in the flood, being a part of "the world of the ungodly." (II Peter 2: 5) Perhaps it is also an allusion to the "sons of God" (angels) in Genesis chapter six who mated with "daughters of men," and produced the hybrids known as "Nephilim" or "giants," the beings who had a fallen angel for a father and a human female for a mother. But, more on that point later.
View number five likewise has some truth and some error. There is some disagreement whether the preaching done (once the preaching through Noah view is rejected) by Christ to the spirits was done during the three days when his body lay lifeless in the tomb or after Christ was resurrected. We will speak of that issue shortly, and show why the text fairly interpreted shows that the preaching was done during the three days when Christ in spirit was in "the heart of the earth."
Further, the bible does indicate that Christ had a message to deliver to all the inhabitants of the Underworld, to fallen men, fallen angels, and to the righteous who were happy together in a specially created region of delight in the Underworld, what is called "Abraham's Bosom."
Important Questions On The Text
1. What does "being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit" mean?
2.What is meant by the words "by whom also He went"?
3. When did Christ "preach to the spirits in prison"?
4. Why does Christ preach particularly to the antediluvian rebels who died in the flood?
5. What was Christ' purpose in preaching to those damned spirits?
In beginning our analysis of this text, let us notice the three major occurrences of the text relative to Christ "suffering" the pains of Crucifixion and death.
1) "having been put to death" from a single Greek word (thanatōtheis - θανατωθεὶς)
2) "having been made alive" from a single Greek word (zōopoiētheis - ζωοποιηθεὶς)
3) "having gone" from a single Greek word (poreutheis - πορευθεὶς)
All those single Greek words are Aorist Tense (or Aspect) Participles, Passive Voice, Nominative Case, Masculine gender, Singular number.
It seems clear to me that there is a sequence to these three words and what occurrences they refer to. In other words, his being "having been made alive" follows his "having been put to death." Likewise, his "having gone" follows his having been both put to death and being yet kept alive. Ergo, it seems clear that his "having gone" also is what he does after his death and his being yet alive in spirit in the afterlife. So, when did Christ go and preach to the spirits in prison? After his death, and when his soul or spirit was separated from his body, when he was a disembodied spirit. To say that the "having gone" refers to an event in Noah's day, to Christ speaking to the antediluvian peoples through Noah, is therefore totally untenable.
Further, the text clearly says that Christ does his preaching while he is out of the body, while he is alive in spirit but dead in body. Also, the text seems clear that the ones preached to by Christ while he was spirit and out of the body were also disembodied spirits. It is spirit communicating with spirits. The words "in spirit preached to spirits" (literal translation) cannot refer to bodies speaking to bodies. It means just what a plain normal reading of the words leads us to think, prima facie.
"In which" or "By which"?
The Greek Text
19 - ἐν ᾧ καὶ τοῖς ἐν φυλακῇ πνεύμασιν πορευθεὶς ἐκήρυξεν
en o kai tois en phulake pneumasin poreutheis ekeruxen
Does Christ, per the text, go "in spirit" or "by the Spirit"? Translators disagree on this and translate it in these ways (or similarly):
in which also he went
by whom also he went
in whom also he went
The Greek text has "en" (English "in") and not "dia" (through). That "en" sometimes functions as "by" is not doubted, but it is not the general normal use, but secondary.
"In the flesh" is the opposite of "in the spirit" just as "put to death" is the opposite of "quickened." There is no definite article "the," however, before either "flesh" or "spirit." That strongly suggests that the Holy Spirit of the Trinity is not alluded to. Rather, it is speaking of Christ's own disembodied spirit, of what he did "in spirit," of what he said and did while in the spirit world, in the Underworld. The text is telling us what Christ did when he died, when he became a conscious disembodied spirit in the world of spirits.
There is a lot of difference between saying "made alive (quickened) in spirit" and "made alive by the Spirit." Likewise between "in which" and "by whom." Just as "put to death in flesh" does not mean "put to death by the flesh" so "made alive in spirit" does not mean "made alive by the Spirit." The former expression tells us what was it that died, not what killed the thing, as does the latter. Likewise "made alive in spirit" tells us what did not die, not what made alive.
What is said here of Christ can also be said in regard to the death of any human being. Being put to death in the flesh (body) does not kill the spirit. Jesus himself said this very thing. Said he:
“And do not fear those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. But rather fear Him who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell." (Matt. 10: 28 nkjv)
Dr. John MacArthur writes (emphasis mine):
"The phrase made alive in the spirit refers to the life of Jesus' spirit--not to the Holy Spirit. There's no article in the Greek text indicates that Peter was referring to the Holy Spirit. Rather, he seems to be contrasting what happened to the flesh (or body) of Jesus with what happened to His spirit. His spirit was alive but His flesh was dead.
Some think made alive in the spirit refers to Christ's resurrection, but that would necessitate a statement like, He was put to death in the flesh but made alive in the flesh. The resurrection was a spiritual and physical occurrence. Thus Peter's point has to be that though Christ was physically dead, His spirit was still alive." (As cited here)
Said Dr. James White (See here):
"There are a couple of ways the end of verse 18 and beginning of verse 19 could be translated. The Greek presents a classic men… de construction, which students of Greek recognize as meaning “on the one hand this… but on the other that…” Here, it’s thanatōtheis men sarki, zōopoiētheis de pneumati: on the one hand having been put to death in the flesh, but on the other having been made alive in the spirit. You could translate “in the spirit” as “by the spirit” (or even “by the Spirit,” indicating the Holy Spirit). However, I would suggest that if you translate it “by the spirit/Spirit,” you would need to translate the preceding men clause as “having been put to death by the flesh.” Otherwise, the parallel (“on the one hand… on the other”) wouldn’t work as powerfully. I suppose you could say “by the flesh,” referring to the Jewish and Roman authorities, but that would be an odd use of the word “flesh” that you would need to justify. The idea of “in the flesh” versus “in the spirit” is far more common, biblically speaking. It can contrast our fallen nature in Adam over against our regenerated nature in Christ (e.g., Romans 8:8-9). It can also refer simply to one’s mortal existence as opposed to one’s soul or spiritual existence (e.g., 2 Corinthians 10:3; Galatians 2:20; Philippians 1:22-24; 1 John 4:2). I believe Peter is using the term here in this latter sense. Jesus’s body was put to death, but he was spiritually alive and continued to live."
Wrote another (here):
"This passage in I Peter 3, particularly verses 19-20, is quite difficult to translate from Greek to English. This is so because each of the nine Greek words in verse 19 can be translated in various shades of meaning, making interpretation tricky. We probably do best by translating them in their most basic meanings, thus: "in which also He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison . . ." (author's paraphrase).
The "which" ("whom" in NKJV) in verse 19 probably refers back to "Spirit," its closest antecedent, in verse 18, suggesting that Jesus was no longer in the flesh but by this time had been changed into spirit. This follows the historical chain of events in order from the preceding verse: He suffered, died, was resurrected, and was thus changed to spirit, leading to the next key words, "He went."" (Richard T. Ritenbaugh Jesus and 'the Spirits in Prison')
All these facts lead us to interpret the words "made alive in spirit" not as a reference to his bodily resurrection. What is made alive in spirit is not his body. So, the text is not referring to preaching that Christ did after his bodily resurrection, but after his bodily death, when his living spirit entered the place of the spirits of the departed dead. "Made alive" has the force of "kept alive," or "animated," or "vivified." Though the body lost its life force, his spirit remained vibrant and invigorated.
Wrote a leading Commentary on the text (emphasis mine):
"We enter here on a passage of which widely different interpretations have been given. It seems best in dealing with it to give in the first place what seems to be the true sequence of thought, and afterwards to examine the other views which appear to the present writer less satisfactory. It is obvious that every word will require a careful study in its relation to the context. (1) For “by which” we ought to read “in which.” It was not by the instrumentality of the Holy Spirit, but in His human spirit as distinct from the flesh, that He who had preached to men living in the flesh on earth now went and preached to the spirits that had an existence separate from the flesh. (2) The word “went” is, in like manner, full of significance. It comes from the Apostle who was the first to proclaim that the “spirit” or “soul” of Christ had passed into Hades, but had not been left there (Acts 2:31). It agrees with the language of St Paul in the Epistle to which we have found so many references in this Epistle, that He had “descended first into the lower parts of the earth,” i.e. into the region which the current belief of the time recognised as the habitation of the disembodied spirits of the dead (Ephesians 4:9). It harmonises with the language of the Apostle who was St. Peter’s dearest friend when he records the language in which the risen Lord had spoken of Himself as having “the keys of Hades and of death,” as having been dead, but now “alive for evermore” (Revelation 1:18)." (Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges)
Though I agree with the above, I cannot accept some of what the same commentary says further in the same context. It is these words of commentary:
"And he “went and preached.” The latter word is used throughout the Gospels of the work of Christ as proclaiming “the Gospel of the kingdom” (Matthew 4:23), preaching “repentance” (Matthew 4:17), and the glad tidings of remission of sins as following upon repentance. It would do violence to all true methods of interpretation to assume that the Apostle, who had been converted by that preaching and had afterwards been a fellow-worker in it, would use the word in any other meaning now."
We will address whether any of the "preaching" done by Christ while in Hades was the gospel, or the evangel. If we think that I Peter 4: 6, where Peter says "for this reason the gospel was preached to those who are dead," is referring to the same preaching of I Peter 3: 19, then we can say that the preaching or proclamations of Christ in Hades included the gospel message. Why would we think Christ would not say something about the good news? Surely he also preached and proclaimed judgment, announced sentence to the inhabitants, etc. As there were different groups to address in Hades, so too there were different proclamations and announcements to be made in particular to each group or section of Hades prison.
The commentary also says further:
"We cannot think of the work to which the Spirit of Christ went as that of proclaiming an irrevocable sentence of condemnation. This interpretation, resting adequately on its own grounds, is, it need hardly be said, confirmed almost beyond the shadow of a doubt by the words of ch. 1 Peter 4:6, that “the Gospel was preached also to the dead.” Those to whom He thus preached were “spirits.” (Ibid)
But, actually, he had both a message of condemnation to the unrighteous lost and to the righteous in Abraham's Bosom. It ought to be easy to accept. The purpose and the message in preaching in Hades, whether it be the gospel or the law, would be different for each side of the gulf of Hades, or to the fallen angels versus wicked humans, or to demons, or to Satan.
Baker's Evangelical Dictionary say:
"It is widely accepted that the proclamation in 1 Peter 3:19 occurs after rather than before his resurrection (v. 18, "made alive by the Spirit")..." (See here)
But, that is not true for that is not the meaning of the text as we have seen.
In summing up what we have been led to believe we see that the text says that Christ, when his body was put to death his soul continued to be animated with life in his human spirit and he went to the place where all departed spirits go, to Hades. His going there, however, was not common with any other. He went there for several reasons.
First, because he had died. Second, to "lead captivity captive," to empty the comforting paradisaical side of Hades where the righteous family were gathered together with father Abraham. Third, to convey a message to the inhabitants of Hades, one of which is specifically addressed to one "cell block" of the punishment or prison side of Hades, to those criminals who had behaved so abominably in the days before the flood. Or, perhaps to the fallen angels who are in the "Tartarus" section of the prison? We will pick up at this point in the next chapter as we continue our examination of I Peter 3: 18-20.
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