INSTRUMENTAL MUSIC IN WORSHIP? by Bob L. Ross of Pilgrim Publications (see here)
As brother Ross said, this article is "part of my book entitled “Campbellites, Cowbells, Rosary Beads, and Snake-Handling.”
It would do well for all to read the entire article and to get Bob's book on this topic. There are also debates on the subject by Ross on youtube. Here are some of the questions and answers on the subject that Bob addressed (emphasis mine).
1. “What kinds of music are in the Bible?”
The words “musick,” “musical,” and “musician(s)” are used in the Bible 75 times, and 55 of these are “captions” to the Psalms.
The word “musick” is used 15 times in the Old Testament and refers to instrumental music: 13 times literally, once allegorically (Ecc. 12:4), and once metaphorically (Lam. 3:63).
“Musick” is used ONE time in the New Testament (Luke 15:25) where it translates the Greek word “sumphonia,” which means the same as our word “symphony.”
Thus, in the Bible, “musick” is used of instrumental music only. There are, however, two classes of instruments: (1) wind instruments, (2) hand-played instruments. These have been here since the days of Adam (Gen. 4:21, harp and organ). These classes of instruments are also said to be in God’s own heavenly presence (Ex. 20:18; I Cor. 15:52; Rev. 8:2; 5:8; 14:2; 15:2). It appears that the Lord has his own “musical staff” in the heavenlies, and the instruments are stamped “made in Heaven” (if stamped at all)!
2. “Is not singing a kind of music in the Bible?”
We have nothing against singing; in fact, we love it! We could take all our space and then some in extolling singing. But in the Bible, “musick” is not used of singing. Singing has been so closely associated with instrumental music, we usually use the word “music” to cover singing, as well as other related items such as lyrics, musical notes, performances, etc. However, in scriptural nomenclature, there is only one “kind” of music, and that is with instruments. The words, “vocal music,” are sometimes used by some, but there is no direct statement, account of action, or implication that this is a Bible expression.
3. “Why do some churches reject instrumental music?”
Church groups, such as Churches of Christ and Primitive Baptists, here in Texas, reject instrumental music. One reason for this is a particular theory about the relation of the Old Testament to the New Testament. It is thought by some that we are “not under the Old Testament.” But while there are indeed a number of things which changed with the coming of Jesus Christ, these are carefully delineated in New Testament writings and we must not go “above that which is written” (I Cor. 4:6). The scriptures of both testaments are to be studied and “rightly divided” (2 Tim. 2:15). Jesus, the Apostles, and the early church had the Old Testament; the Gospels and the Epistles came along as the apostolic days transpired. The Old Testament is “for our learning” and is “scripture” (Romans 15:4; John 5:39; 2 Tim. 3:15). Paul admonishes us to use “psalms” in our singing, and these are admittedly the Psalms of the Old Testament (Ept. 5:19; Col. 3:16).
4. “If we take instrumental music from the Old Testament, would we not also have to take animal sacrifices and everything else?”
We are authorized to use “psalms” (Eph. 5:19), not to offer animal sacrifices. Many things taught in the Old Testament are still lawful; many things which are called “patterns, figures, and shadows” were fulfilled. The Law is still “good, if a man use it lawfully” (I Timothy 1:8). But there is perhaps nothing about which there is as much confusion as the Law and its relation to New Testament teachings. This was also the case in apostolic times, and the apostles often had to address the problem. And today, we are not authorized to subtract anything from God’s Law without authority for so doing (Deut. 4:2; Matt. 5:19; Mark 7:5-13). Neither are we to add to His Law.
5. “Also, wouldn’t we likewise be authorized to bring in many other questionable religious practices?”
To hear some critics of instrumental music present the case, instrumental music “opens the floodgates” to a regular “Vanity Fair” in church worship! This is the old ploy of the sophist who seeks accreditation for his point of view by the discreditation of another view, and to do this he uses what is called the “slippery slope” or “domino” fallacy.
This approach fails to recall that psalms were used with instrumental music in the worship of God for thousands of years before anyone ever thought of the “floodgate” idea! Isn’t it rather “strange” that instrumental music did not have that effect in Israel?
If we are instructed to use psalms, this does not carry with it the “blanket approval” of anything and everything that happens to pop-up.
6. “If we are authorized to use instruments, would not every member have to play an instrument?”
The church “body” is a unit with individual “members” with differing “gifts” as it “hath pleased Him” (I Cor. 12:18). Paul discusses the “parts” such as the foot, hand, ear, eye, and nose and explains that they have their respective roles in the one “body” (I Cor. 12:11-31). He is discussing the same matter in Ephesians and says “unto every one is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ” (4:7). Not every member in the one body is gifted to preach, or teach, or lead public prayer, or lead singing, or do mission work, or some other work in which the body as a church unit is engaged. See the “unit” principle in 1 Corinthians 12:26.
The “account of approved action” which we have in Scripture is that those who were “cunning” with instruments, “willing skillful men,” “all that could skill of instruments,”- these served in the “ministry” playing instruments (I Chron. 25:7; 28:21; 2 Chron. 34:12; 29:25; 7:6; 8:14; 23:18; 1 Chron. 16:4-9). It was not every Israelite who played, neither does every member of the “body” play today. We learn this from these Scriptures as we are authorized to do (see Romans 15:4).
7. “How does one ‘make melody,’ according to Scripture?”
The words “making melody” are used in Ephesians 5:19, but “how” this is done is found in Isaiah 23:16, and it is with a musical instrument: “Take an harp, go about the city, thou harlot that hast been forgotten; make sweet melody, sing many songs, that thou mayest be remembered.” Also, Amos 5:23 speaks of “the melody of thy viols,” which is also reference to a musical instrument. So if “the Bible interprets itself,” these passages show “how” to make melody – with musical instruments.
8. “Does Ephesians 5:19 mean that the heart is the ‘instrument’?”
Some who reject musical instruments in worship contend that Eph. 5:19 is “figurative,” or “metaphorical;” however, this idea goes “begging” for any support in the Scriptures. James D. Bales, an anti-instrument writer, even acknowledges that there is “no passage” which says “the instrument typified the melody of the heart,” yet this is the theory of those who oppose music. “Strings of the heart” is not a Bible phrase. “Singing and making melody in your heart” simply means the same thing as in other passages where something is done “in” or “with” the heart. All obedience and worship are to be “in the heart,” for this is what God’s Law requires (Deut. 6:4; Mark 12:30). We are to worship “in spirit” and “in truth” (John 4:23, 24), but this does not mean that acts of worship are eliminated. There is no example of “making melody” in the heart in the “hidden” sense, if we go by Scripture.
Now, let the Hardshell anti instrumentalist answer Bob's defence!
Supplementary Notes
on "singing and making melody"(ᾄδοντες καὶ ψάλλοντες)
Albert Barnes in his Notes on the NT wrote:
"It is most frequently used in the sense of touching or playing a lyre, or a harp..."
John Eadie's Commentary on Galatians, Ephesians, Colossians and Philippians wrote:
"...the meaning of the clause seems to be this—“Giving expression among yourselves, or in concert, to your joyous emotions in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs.” λαλοῦντες ἑαυτοῖς, different from λέγοντες πρὸς ἑαυτούς, may, perhaps, signify “in responsive chorus,” or dicere secum invicem, as Pliny's letter describes it. We know that ancient sacred song was of this antiphonal nature; nay, Nicephorus Callistus in his History, 13.8, says, that such a practice was handed down from the apostles- τὴν τῶν ἀντιφώνων συνήθειαν ἄνωθεν ἀποστόλων ἡ ἐκκλησία παρέλαβε. Theodoret traces the same custom to the church at Antioch (Hist. Ecclesiastes 2:24), while Socrates ascribes the origin of it to Ignatius. Hist. 6.8. Augustine, however, carries such responsoria no higher than the episcopate of Ambrose at Milan. But indeed many of the psalms were composed so as to be sung by a chorus and semichorus, as is plainly marked in the 2nd and in the 24th."
"The apostle refers certainly to social intercourse, and in all probability also, and at the same time, to meetings for Divine service."
"The previous λαλοῦντες is defined by ᾄδοντες as being co-ordinate with it. The second participle may denote an additional exercise. Their speech was to be song, or they were to be singing as well as speaking. ψάλλειν, originally “to strike the lyre,” came to signify “to strike up a tune,” and it denotes the prime accompaniment of these songs..."
Hodges Commentary:
"ᾄδοντες καὶ ψάλλοντες, singing and making melody, are two forms of expressing the same thing. The latter term is the more comprehensive; as αἴδειν is to make music with the voice; ψάλλειν, to make music in any way; literally, to play on a stringed instrument; then, to sing in concert with such an instrument; then, to sing or chant. See 1 Corinthians 14:15; James 5:13; Romans 15:9."
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