Did Paul Write Hebrews?

Did Paul write the Book of Hebrews? I believe, like most, that he did. Here are my reasons:

1. Paul's token signature

Paul, though he had a secretary or "amanuensis," to whom he dictated, yet he did write the Book of Galatians without one. He thus wrote these words in his Galatians epistle:

"Ye see how large a letter I have written unto you with mine own hand." (Gal. 6: 11)

In all his epistles and sacred writings he always ended them with the words of his seal, a kind of attestation of authorship, like a branding, or a signet. It was also an ending salutation and benediction. If Paul were here today and had his own letter stationary printed, he would have at the bottom his signatory motto. 

As we will see, this motto was present in all his epistles, though in not exactly the same form of words, and is present in the Hebrew epistle or writing. First then, let us give his own testimony about the words that he says will end all his communications. Wrote Paul in his second epistle to the Thessalonians:

"The salutation of Paul with mine own hand, which is the token in every epistle: so I write. The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen." (II Thess. 3: 17-18)

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you" are Paul's "mark of authenticity" for his epistles. The word "token" denotes a "sign." The token involved words which wished grace upon the ones addressed. It may also include his own peculiar hand signature together with some kind of "mark." 

Now let us see how Paul uses such words at the conclusion of all his epistles:

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen." (Rom. 16: 24)

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you." (I Cor. 16: 23)

"The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen." II Cor. 13: 14)

"Brethren, the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit. Amen." (Gal. 6: 18)

"Grace be with all them that love our Lord Jesus Christ in sincerity. Amen." (Eph. 6: 24)

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen." (Phl. 4: 23)

"The salutation by the hand of me Paul. Remember my bonds. Grace be with you. Amen." (Col. 4: 18)

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you. Amen." (I Thess. 5: 28)

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen." (II Thess. 3: 18)

"Grace be with thee. Amen." (I Tim. 6: 21)

"Grace be with you. Amen." (II Tim. 4: 22)

"Grace be with you all. Amen." (Titus 3: 15)

"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit. Amen." (Phm 1: 25)

Do you see that his salutation and signature words of closing benediction are present in all his epistles just as he said they would be? And, what do we find at the end of the Hebrew epistle?

"Grace be with you all. Amen." (Heb. 13: 25)

Now, to me this is conclusive. There need be no other proof. There are, however, other corroborating evidences that Paul wrote Hebrews.

2. II Peter 3: 15-16

"And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction."

When did Paul write to the Jewish Christians particularly? None of his epistles, except Hebrews, was written to them. Paul wrote to Gentile congregations, many which also had large Hebrew members in them. 

There are several other reasons, but to me the above are sufficient. Nevertheless in closing let me cite from Dr. John Gill in his Introduction to his commentary of the Book of Hebrews.

Wrote Dr. Gill in his introduction to his commentary on Hebrews:

"It has been ascribed to different persons, as to Barnabas, to Apollos, to Luke the Evangelist, and to Clement of Rome, but without any just reason. Clement of Alexandria, a very ancient writer, asserts it to be the Apostle Paul's {d}; and his name stands in the title of it, in all R. Stephens's exemplars, and in all Beza's copies, excepting one, and so it does in the Vulgate Latin and Arabic versions; and that it is his, is highly probable from the agreement there is between this, and other epistles of his..."

He also writes:

"and also from the order and method of it, first treating of doctrines, and then proceeding to practical exhortations, which is the common form of Paul's epistles: to which may be added various circumstances; as that it was written from Italy, where Paul was a prisoner; and the mention the author of it makes of his bonds, and of Timothy, as well known unto him, who was Paul's companion; besides, the token of his epistles appears in this, namely, his usual salutation to the churches; see Heb 13:23-25. But above all, the testimony of the Apostle Peter is greatly in favour of its being his, 2 Pe 3:15,16 from whence it clearly appears, that the Apostle Paul did write an epistle to the Hebrews; for to them Peter wrote; see 1 Pe 1:1 2 Pe 3:1 and what epistle could it be but this? and what Peter refers to is to be found in it; see Heb 10:25,36,37 and which is written with great wisdom; in none of Paul's epistles is there a greater discovery of his knowledge of divine mysteries than in this; and in it also are things hard to be understood, Heb 5:11." 

To me these arguments very strongly favor Pauline authorship of Hebrews. There are really very few arguments against his authorship. Gill addresses them, writing:

"The common objections to its being his are, its not bearing his name, the diversity of its style, and the author of it seeming to be not an apostle, but a disciple of the apostle's: as to his not setting his name to it, the reasons might be, because he was the apostle of the Gentiles, and not so much of the Jews; and because of the prejudice of the Jews against him, both believers, and unbelievers; wherefore had his name been to it, it might have prevented the usefulness of it to the one, and have stirred up the rage of the other..." 

It is not a very strong argument to say that the absence of Paul's general introduction, wherein he mentions himself as the one doing the writing or dictating, is proof that he did not write it. It assumes that it could not possibly serve any purpose for him not to mention his name in this Hebrew epistle. But, that is simply not a valid assumption or inference. Dr. Gill gives several possible reasons for why Paul chose not to state his name or status as an apostle. Consider also the fact that he did in fact tell us that he was the author of the Hebrew epistle by writing his well know ending salutation, his "token"! 

Others argue that Paul mentions not his own name or apostleship because he wants to focus on Christ as "Apostle" ("consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus" - 3:1). I think that is highly tenable as a reason. Consider also that if the absence of Paul's name is proof that he did not write it, then, by the same logic, we can say that the Book of Hebrews has no author! Chew on that. Whoever wrote it had a reason for not giving his name. So, those who deny Paul wrote Hebrews must still tell us why any other author would not give his name.

He continues:

"as to the difference of style, different subjects require a different style; and yet in many things there is a likeness, as before observed..." 

In my nearly fifty years of reading the epistles of Paul I can say that Hebrews has seemed very Pauline to me. It just seems to be the kind of logical reasoning and apologetic method that I see in his other epistles.

He continues:

"and as to the author's not being an apostle, which is concluded from Heb 2:3 the word "us" there is to be understood of the believing Hebrews, the disciples of the apostle, and not inclusive of the author, by a figurative way of speaking often used by Paul (like the editorial 'we' - SG); and besides, the apostle received a confirmation of the Gospel from Ananias, who might have been an hearer of Christ, though he was at first taught it by Christ himself; add to this, that whoever was the writer of it, it was written before the destruction of Jerusalem, and when several of the apostles were living, and therefore he could never design by those words to put himself in a succeeding generation."

I don't exactly agree with Gill on Hebrews 2: 3-4. Let us look at those verses a little closer and see if they show that Paul could not have written Hebrews.

"How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?"

What time period does Paul allude to when he refers to the Lord speaking of salvation?

Answer: He is referring to the public ministry of the Lord, the time between his baptism and his Ascension, to the time when he was teaching on earth. It does not include personal teaching that the Lord did after the Ascension, when he made special appearances and communications to the apostles, and others, including Paul, as described in the Book of Acts.  Paul was not one "that heard him" during that three and one half year period as did the other apostles. Thus, when he refers in the third person to "them that heard him" he is referring to the other apostles (and others) who heard Christ preach during his time on earth. Paul is not, therefore, denying that he too has "heard" Christ speak to him of salvation. He is denying that he heard Christ during his time on earth.  

Consider also that Paul does not mean to exclude himself and others, who did not personally hear Christ teach when he was here on earth, as also having had "God bear them witness both with signs and wonders," and also "with divers miracles," etc. So likewise does he not mean to exclude himself from ever having heard Christ personally teach him. He is excluding himself from the category of those who heard Christ during his time on earth before his ascension.

Consider also that Paul begins Hebrews with these words:

"God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son..." (1:1-2a)

Here Paul says that God "spoke" to all, "unto us," which includes himself. But, these words are applicable to all today who hear or read the words of Jesus. Though I live about two thousand years since Christ was "heard" in person, while he was here on earth, yet I can say that God has "spoken" unto me by his Son. Thus, hallelujah, I too have "heard" the Son! Have you?