In between the words "by which he went and preached to the spirits in prison" (I Peter 3: 19) and "for this reason was the gospel preached to them who are dead" (I Peter 4: 6) we have these words of the apostle Peter:
"...the resurrection of Jesus Christ, who has gone into heaven and is at the right hand of God, angels and authorities and powers having been made subject to Him." (I Peter 3: 21-22)
It was in the exercise of his lordship and judicial authority that Christ went to the Underworld and ascended therefrom. We have also seen how Christ is the "head" and "lord" of every man, including every dead man or everyone who is in the Underworld, and the words of the above text are similar to the words of Paul in Colossians 2: 10 - "and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all principality and power."
In our look into the work of Christ while in the Underworld of Hades, or his mission when he descended into the lower parts of the earth, we have seen how Christ accomplished several things. One question however that needs to be addressed is -
Did Christ Suffer In Hades As Atonement?
Though I am still studying this question, I nevertheless at present believe that Christ did not go to Hades to
1) Finish paying for the sins of sinners, nor to suffer punishment for sin
2) Offer salvation to those with Dives on the torment side of the Gulf of Hades.
Those are errors and the scriptures do not teach them. Christ said while on the cross, right before he died, "it is finished." I take that to mean that his vicarious sufferings as a substitutionary sacrifice were then being completed when he said those words. Technically, however, "it is finished" does not denote a point in time before Christ actually died. At the time he uttered these words he was still alive, and so atonement was not finished, though he died very soon after saying those words.
The scriptures say that the elect (or body of believers) were saved by the death of Christ and by the cross of Christ (or by his crucifixion). But, do they not also say that the elect were saved by the resurrection of Christ? When Christ said "it is finished," did he mean that nothing else was necessary for the redemption or salvation of the elect? The way some argue on the words "it is finished" leads one to affirm that anything after the time of his uttering those words is not necessary for salvation, including his resurrection. Therefore, the argument that Christ could not have gone to the Underworld as a condition of salvation for the elect, based upon those words, becomes no argument at all. Let us notice some texts that speak of the resurrection of Christ as necessary for salvation.
"But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then Christ is not risen. 14 And if Christ is not risen, then our preaching is empty and your faith is also empty. 15 Yes, and we are found false witnesses of God, because we have testified of God that He raised up Christ, whom He did not raise up—if in fact the dead do not rise. 16 For if the dead do not rise, then Christ is not risen. 17 And if Christ is not risen, your faith is futile; you are still in your sins! 18 Then also those who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished." (I Cor. 15: 13-18 nkjv)
So, in one sense, the work of Christ was not finished when he uttered those words. In a real sense it was not finished till he was resurrected, and in another sense not till he ascended into heaven. Paul says that Jesus “was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification.” (Rom. 4: 25) He also said that the salvation (conversion) experience involves experiencing "the power of his resurrection" (Phil. 3: 10). Peter also testifies that believers have been "begotten us again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead" (I Peter 1: 3). He also says that baptism in water is a picture of our salvation, which salvation is "by the resurrection of Jesus Christ." (I Peter 3: 21)
What Was Finished?
"When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost." (John 19:30)
“It is finished” is a translation of the single Greek word tetelestai, the perfect indicative passive tense of the word telos, and means to end; to bring to completion; to bring to a conclusion; to complete; to accomplish; to fulfill; or to finish. It may be used in several nuanced ways. One was in a secular or business sense, the word tetelestai being used in the business world to signify the full payment of a debt. When a debt had been fully paid off, the parchment on which the debt was recorded was stamped with tetelestai, which meant the debt had been paid in full. Said one scholarly source:
"Literally translated the word tetelestai means, “It is finished.” The word occurs in John 19:28 and 19:30 and these are the only two places in the New Testament where it occurs. In 19:28 it is translated, “After this, when Jesus knew that all things were now completed, in order that the scripture might be fulfilled, he said, ‘I thirst.’” Two verses later, he utters the word himself: “Then when he received the sour wine Jesus said, ‘It is finished,’ and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.” (See here)
A debtor, upon making the final payment of his debt would take the debt note to his creditor and the word Tetelestai would be written across the face, indicating the debt was canceled, paid in full, and the man was free of the debt forever. We do similar things to denote the completion of our payments on a debt, to cancel it. We write on it "paid in full" or "satisfied." We also cancel contracts by tearing them up or perhaps having what is called a "mortgage burning" celebration. Sometimes a voided contract will simply be "crossed out" by over writing the document with a big "X." All this is part of what it means for Christ to say "tetelestai." It is also referred to in Colossians by Paul.
"And you, who were dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses, by canceling the record of debt that stood against us with its legal demands. This he set aside, nailing it to the cross." (Col. 2: 13-14 ESV)
"...having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross." (NASB)
Technically, it was not finished until Christ had died. Christ uttered these words while he was yet alive, but it was because he knew that death was imminent.
Christ's active obedience to the law, and his suffering the punishment sinners deserve, as a substitution, were finished when Christ died and shed his blood. Not until the sacrifice was put to death on the altar of Calvary and the blood applied to the mercy seat was the body of believers redeemed and their sins atoned for. Matthew 27:51 says, "Behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent." The veil separated the holy place from the "most holy place," the place where the "mercy seat" was located. Into that enclosed room the high priest alone went once a year to sprinkled the blood of the sacrificial lamb (put to death on the burnt altar in the outer court of the temple). Jesus, in spirit, went through the veil and there sprinkled his own blood. So we read in Hebrews:
"Not with the blood of goats and calves, but with His own blood He (Christ) entered the Most Holy Place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption." (9: 12)
The veil was not rent until Christ had died. It was immediately after his sufferings and death that he entered into the holy place with his blood, and at that point, there is no need of any more sufferings nor punishments. Therefore, Christ did not suffer any ills while in the Underworld of Hades.
Atonement and propitiation and paying the price of redemption occurred when Christ was sacrificed, when he was put to death and his blood applied to the mercy seat on behalf of believers. However, that does not mean that Christ had no more work to do in effecting the salvation of sinners. As stated, he still had to be resurrected for our salvation. Also, he had to become Lord by his victory over hell and death. He still had to continuously act as Savior and as High Priest (between his first and second comings) in order that salvation be "finished."
Christ went to Hades but it was not a part of his sufferings as an atonement sacrifice. He did not suffer any torment or deprivation in the Underworld. He went through the veil into the holiest place before he descended into the Underworld.
Dr. Matthew Emerson, Baptist professor, has recently written a book espousing the same views I have been espousing in this part of our series. I have not read his book yet, titled "He Descended to the Dead: An Evangelical Theology of Holy Saturday." Hopefully I can get it and read it soon. However, I have watched several YouTube videos in which he has taught on this question, and have also read some of his writings on this subject before he printed his book. Dr. Emerson wrote the following under “He Descended to the Dead”: The Burial of Christ and the Eschatological Character of the Atonement" (See here emphasis mine):
"Although the doctrine, and even the event itself, is questioned today, it is clear that the early Christian theologians, and subsequently most of historic Christianity, have affirmed that Jesus descended to the dead and accomplished something there. The question throughout the history of doctrine has been what exactly Christ accomplished in his descent."
Agreed. Emerson then writes:
"The descent to the dead, and the multiple understandings of its meaning throughout church history, provides one of the clearest examples of how the burial of Jesus is an eschatological atoning act. In what follows I will sketch the various options for how to understand the descensus doctrine and how they locate the atonement within eschatology."
Rather than say "eschatological atoning act" he should perhaps say "victorious act of redemption." Or, perhaps as "act of vindication." Keep in mind also that the words "Christ died" include the idea that his soul departed his body and descended to the Underworld. So, if we are saved by the death of Christ, we are saved by his descent into the Underworld.
Dr. Emerson wrote further:
"The common thread here, for those who affirm and for those who deny the descent, is that in Jesus’ burial, he defeats the last enemy, which is death (1 Cor 15:26), and crushes Satan’s head. Death is swallowed up in death. Jesus thus accomplishes what will happen on the Day of the Lord: the defeat of Satan, sin, death, hell, and the grave. Indeed, his Passion is the Day of the Lord. The burial of Christ is an eschatological act in its defeat of Hades, both accomplishing that victory and anticipating its culmination at Jesus’ return. (So Gatch, “The Harrowing of Hell,” 78.) Again, even if one does not affirm a Catholic, Orthodox, or Lutheran perspective on the descent, Jesus was still dead for three days and, in being dead, defeated death. His burial can thus be affirmed by all traditions as eschatologically salvific because it gains the victory over God’s enemies."
I believe that is correct. Emerson says further:
"Conclusion: The burial of Jesus, although neglected in the doctrines of atonement and eschatology, proves to be both more important to each than is often acknowledged and also a nexus between them. By understanding how the burial of Jesus is atoning, in that by it he defeats God’s enemies, vicariously experiences the intermediate state, experiences and brings Sabbath rest, and embodies the already/not yet tension, we see also how it is thoroughly eschatological. Like the rest of Jesus’ work, his burial inaugurates the last days, brings victory over Satan, sin, and death, and is vicarious for those united to Christ. The burial of Jesus is thus an integral piece of his vicarious work and helps to demonstrate the eschatological character of his full work of atonement."
Again, I think that is right.
In one interview with him by Brian Arnold (See here) we have the question of whether Christ' descent into Hades was a means of salvation addressed by Dr. Emerson.
Brian, the interviewer, asks Emerson:
"And some of the verses that are used are words that come from Jesus on the cross. There’s seven of them, famously, that he said while paying the price for sins. And in John 19:30, Jesus says these three words—"it is finished,” coming across in the Greek in just tetelestai, the one word, “it is finished.” Well, was it finished when Jesus died, or was it not yet finished? Because I think some people would say, if it was really finished when he said so, then why does he need to descend? If it wasn’t finished yet, then why aren’t those words said after the resurrection, or even better yet, after the ascension and the session, him sitting down at the right hand of majesty? So why is Jesus saying “it is finished” on the cross if it’s not yet finished?"
Good questions! Emerson replies:
"Yeah. So when Jesus says that, he’s saying that his active obedience is done. He’s lived the perfect life that we can’t live, and he’s died the death that we deserve, for us. And there’s nothing else left to do. What happens in his descent and resurrection and ascension, is the application of that work to reality. So in his descent, he’s really dead, he really…I mean, that’s part of the penalty for sin, is being dead. So I affirm penal substitution, so I affirm that Jesus experienced God’s wrath on the cross. So I don’t want to…I want to make very clear that I affirm penal substitution. Jesus took our place. He took our punishment. He took God’s wrath on the cross. But it’s not just that he took God’s wrath, it’s that in taking God’s wrath, he also experienced the punishment for sin, which is ultimately God’s wrath, but there’s also a physical death. So he dies, but he applies his finished work to the realm of the dead in his descent, declaring victory that he’s already won. He’s not doing anything new."
Again, I think that is correct.
Brian then asks:
"And then let me ask you the other one that that trips people up on this, as Jesus turns to the thief on the cross and he says, “today you’ll be with me in paradise.” We’ve kind of answered this a little bit already, but let’s knock this one right on the nose, and address this in terms of—where’s paradise?"
Matthew Emerson replies:
"Yeah. So paradise was viewed, or was a term to refer to the righteous compartment of the place of the dead. And the place of the dead is…this is all metaphorical language. I mean, there’s not…you can’t dig down in the dirt and find the place of the dead where human souls reside. Okay? So we need to be careful about how we say this, but when the dead are waiting for the resurrection, they’re waiting in the place of the dead, which is down, in kind of the spatial, metaphorical language. And so Jesus, quote unquote, “goes down to paradise.” Now, because of his resurrection, the nature of paradise has changed. The righteous dead are no longer waiting for the Messiah, but the Messiah is in their midst. And so now we talk about going up to heaven, because that’s where Jesus is, and therefore that’s where the righteous dead are. But going down, in terms of his death on the cross and what he says to the thief, and that being related to Old Testament language and New Testament language about the place of the dead—that would have been normal. Everybody would have thought, “yeah, he’s going down to the place of the dead, paradise, righteous compartment, because he’s a good dude. I mean, he’s perfect.”
Again, that is correct. However, perhaps Christ went to both Heaven and the Underworld in spirit. We have already seen where he went into the holiest place when the Temple curtain was rent from top to bottom. The holiest place is of course Heaven itself. So, he could have easily gone to both places (along with the thief who confessed him).
Emerson continued:
"But it’s changed now. And so the spatial language changes. And it changes because he’s there. He wasn’t there before—they were waiting on him, they were faithful. That’s why they were in the righteous compartment, not the unrighteous compartment, because they’re faithful saints waiting for the Messiah to come. But now he’s come. He’s here, and he’s in their midst. And he’s in the throne room of heaven. And so they’re up with him. And so, when we die, we go up. Or we talk about going up to heaven, rather than down to the place of the dead, because the nature of the place of the dead has changed."
This has been a traditional view of many Christians and I think it is correct to now see Paradise as being up in the third heaven. Whether Paradise was always identified with the third heaven, or whether it changed locations after the death of Christ and his entrance into the Underworld, is a question each one will have to decide. I think that the righteous side of Hades was paradise like, but was not Paradise proper. When Christ "led captivity captive" from the Underworld, the righteous went into Paradise proper, or into the third or highest heaven.
Emerson continued:
"Further, the bible shows that there is no salvation after death. In fact, that is one of the lessons of the story of Lazarus and Dives. Once on one side of the gulf (saved or lost), there is no change of state to the other side possible."
That is true.
Emerson continued:
"However, though descending to Hades did not serve the above purposes, it nevertheless did have purpose, far more than many realize, especially among those who dismiss the idea that Christ went to Hades and spoke to Dives and his companions. One of those purposes was to further identify with his chosen people. In this sense his identification with his people is like the groans and sufferings Christ endured during his whole life."
Again, I believe that is correct.
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