I John 5: 1 Again

"Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law." (Rom. 13:8 nkjv)

"Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves whoever has been born of him." (I John 5: 1 esv)

This will be a follow up to my previous post on I John 5:1 wherein I answered the argument of those who say the text teaches that people are born again before they believe in Christ. That view is promoted by many such as Dr. James White and Dr. R.C. Sproul. It is expressed by Dr. Matthew Barrett in his Internet article titled "DOES REGENERATION PRECEDE FAITH IN 1 JOHN?" (See here) In the Introduction he wrote (emphasis mine):

"In 1 John 5:1, the action in the perfect passive indicative (regeneration) precedes and causes the action in the present active participle (faith). The result is clear: God‘s act of regeneration precedes belief. As John Stott explains,

"The combination of the present tense (believes) and perfect tense [has been born] is important. It shows clearly that believing is the consequence, not the cause, of the new birth. Our present, continuing activity of believing is the result, and therefore, the evidence, of our past experience of new birth by which we became and remain God‘s children."

He then gives citations from other theologians who argue the same way. In this post (here) I give what James White said in support of this argument. 

In reply to this line of argument I call attention to the above text in the heading of this article. In that text the words "the one loving has fulfilled the law" (Rom. 13:8) is a case where "the one loving" is a present tense participle and "has fulfilled" is a perfect tense. So, in structure it is the same as "the ones believing that Jesus is the Christ" (I John 5:1), which is a present tense participle, and "has been born of God," which is a perfect tense.

We are told by those who promote the born again before faith view that "has been born" must precede the believing of the participle. However, if that is so, then in the text of Romans 13:8 the fulfilling of the law occurred before the loving of the participle. But, clearly that is not what the apostle intended to say. Rather, he was saying that the fulfilling of the law was the result of loving others with the love of God.

What think ye?