Beliefs about the Afterlife (xv)

Reconciling Mark 12: 27 & Romans 14: 9

18 Then some Sadducees, who say there is no resurrection, came to Him; and they asked Him, saying: 19 “Teacher, Moses wrote to us that if a man’s brother dies, and leaves his wife behind, and leaves no children, his brother should take his wife and raise up offspring for his brother. 20 Now there were seven brothers. The first took a wife; and dying, he left no offspring. 21 And the second took her, and he died; nor did he leave any offspring. And the third likewise. 22 So the seven had her and left no offspring. Last of all the woman died also. 23 Therefore, in the resurrection, when they rise, whose wife will she be? For all seven had her as wife.” 24 Jesus answered and said to them, “Are you not therefore mistaken, because you do not know the Scriptures nor the power of God? 25 For when they rise from the dead, they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven. 26 But concerning the dead, that they rise, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the burning bush passage, how God spoke to him, saying, ‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? 27 He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living. You are therefore greatly mistaken.” (Mark 12: 18-27 nkjv)

God is not "God of the dead"? How can we reconcile that statement with that of Paul in Romans 14:9 that says the risen Christ is "Lord of the dead"? I have found very few bible writers who have addressed this discrepancy or seeming contradiction. Many will simply affirm both as if there is no problem. Some see it but want to leave it alone, to avoid it. 

Christ is indeed Lord of both living and dead and yet God is not the God of the dead, but of the living only. Though those two propositions seem contradictory on the surface, they are not. 

One well known author has seen the discrepancy. Said Dr. John Piper (see here - emphasis mine):

"But now back to Jesus who is Lord of the dead. Isn’t it strange that Jesus should say, God is not the God of the dead, but Paul should say, Jesus is Lord of the dead? It’s not so strange if we let the word of Jesus help us interpret the word of Paul. If God cannot be God of the dead, then Jesus cannot be Lord of the dead. That is, he cannot rule over people who stay in the grave. Those whom he rules live! If Jesus is Lord of the dead, they are not dead! If God is the God of Abraham, Abraham is not dead!"

I think that is correct so far as it goes. However, his saying that "the dead" are really not dead at all is hard to swallow. To say that "the dead" are really "the living" however makes the words "the living and the dead" to be tautological, to mean "the living and the living" or "the living ones who were once dead." 

So, was Jesus denying that Abraham was dead? No, rather, as seems best to say, Jesus was affirming that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, were both dead and alive. They were dead physically, but not in spirit, but were alive in spirit in the Underworld. As we have seen, it is the teaching of the Lord and the new testament that "the body without the spirit is dead" (James 2: 26) and that they who kill the body do not kill the soul or spirit (Matt. 10: 28). We have also noted how the appearance of Moses, who had died, on the mount of transfiguration, along with Elijah the prophet, demonstrates that Moses was both dead and alive. His body was dead and buried and yet he was alive and conscious as a disembodied spirit in the afterlife. God was the God of Moses, but Moses body alone was dead, not his spirit or conscious mind. 

In this short talk of the Lord on the question of "the resurrection of the dead," Christ was affirming that not only were Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob alive in spirit, though dead in body, but that they will also be bodily resurrected in the future, at the time of the resurrection of the righteous dead. God is God and Lord of both the bodies and souls of all men, even the bodies and spirits of those who have died.

In "God of the dead and the living: understanding Romans 14:9 in terms of its intertextual relationships," professor Philip Du Toit (North-West University) said (See here - emphasis mine):

"The account of the Sadducees confronting Jesus about the resurrection occurs in all three of the Synoptic Gospels, Matthew 22:23-33; Mark 12:18-27 and Luke 20:27-50. According to all three accounts, after Jesus said that people will not be given in marriage but be like angels in heaven, he refers to Exodus 3:6, according to which God declares to Moses that he is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jesus then declares that "he [God] is not the God of the dead, but of the living" (ούκ εστίν θεός νεκρών άλλα ζώντων, Mk 12:27; cf. Mt 22:32; Lk 20:38).1 In Luke 20:38, the words "for all live to him" (πάντες γαρ αύτω ζώσιν) are added. At first glance, it seems that this saying in the Synoptic Gospels stands in contrast with Romans 14:9 in that it does not portray God as the God of the dead. But on closer inspection, the saying in the Synoptic Gospels works in the same direction as that of Romans 14:9, albeit from a different angle."

On who is intended by the word "all" in "all live to him" we will have much to say. Professor Philip Du Toit writes further under "ABSTRACT": 

 

"In this article, Paul's reference to Christ being the Lord of both the dead and the living in Romans 14:9 is interpreted in terms of a well-established tradition in the early church that Christ descended into the realm of the dead to proclaim his victory and judgement over evil as well as to announce and accomplish the salvation of historical Israel. This tradition can be related to various NT texts, especially Jesus' reference to God being the God not of the dead but the living (Mt 22:23-33; Mk 12:18-27; Lk 20:27-50), the notion that God (1 Pt 4:3-6) or Jesus is the judge of the living and the dead (Ac 10:42; 2 Tm 4:1), texts alluding to the underworld (Lk 16:19-31) or Jesus ' descent to the realm of the dead (Rm 10:7; 1 Pt 3:18-20:4:6; Eph 4:9), texts that point to the patriarchs being alive (Heb 11:13-16) as well as texts that point to the resurrection of OT saints (Jn 5:25-29; Mt 27:51-53). The interpretative tradition of Christ's descent to the underworld and his salvation of historical Israel is also clearly identified in the writings of the early church. These intertextual relationships that Romans 14:9 shares with many other texts in the early church paint the broader picture of an early Christian tradition about Christ's reign over the dead against which this text is to be interpreted, which in turn has profound implications for the significance of Christ's death and resurrection in Paul's theology."  

The solution to the seeming contradiction lies in the context and on the meaning of the word "the dead" or "dead ones" (there being no definite article in the Greek text). In the Synoptic gospels where Christ says to the Sadducees that God is the God of the living and not of "the dead" he uses the word as it is defined by the Sadducees which meant non existence. Of course, the bible never defines the death as annihilation and "dead persons" as non entities, or non existent beings. Thus, God is not God of people who no longer exist. When, therefore, Paul says that Christ is "Lord of the dead" he does not mean Christ is Lord of imaginary people, of persons who no longer exist except in memory. Rather, Paul uses the term "the dead" in the sense of people who have died in body but not in spirit, people who have entered the afterlife. 

The commentators at Precept Austin say (See here - emphasis mine):

"Swete says: “In quoting that passage (Ex 3:6) the Lord argues thus; In this place, God reveals Himself as standing in a real relation to men who were long dead. But the living God cannot be in relation with any who have ceased to exist; therefore the patriarchs were still living in His sight at the time of the Exodus; dead to the visible world, they were alive unto God…This argument establishes the immortality of the soul, but not, at first sight or directly, the resurrection of the body. But the resurrection of the body follows, when it is understood that the body is a true part of human nature. God would not leave men with whom He maintained relations, in an imperfect condition; the living soul must in due time recover its partner; the death of the body could only be a suspension of vital activities which in some form would be resumed.” (From Kenneth Wuest Wuest Word Studies - Eerdman Publishing Company Volume 1, Volume 2, Volume 3 - used by permission -- or Borrow Mark in the Greek New Testament for the English reader)"

Actually, Jesus is showing that the idea of an afterlife of conscious spirit existence, or intermediate state, is a part of the branch of theology dealing with "resurrection." 

Said Spurgeon in a sermon on this text (Luke 20: 38) (See here):

"Yet further, to bring out the meaning here, God cannot be the God of the non-existent. The supposition is too absurd. Our Savior does not argue about it, but He says so most peremptorily! God is not the God of the dead—that cannot be! If Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob are reduced to a handful of ashes, God cannot be at this moment their God. We cannot take a dead object to be our God, neither can JEHOVAH be a God to lifeless clay. God is not the God of putrefaction and annihilation. God is not the God of that which has ceased to be. We have but to put the idea into words to make it dissolve before the glance of reason. A living God is the God of living men, and Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob are still alive." 

Yes, but God was the God of Abraham even when his body was dead, and we may say, who was still God of Abraham's dead body. God's intention to raise his body to life again is also involved in God being the God of Abraham. In agreement with this Spurgeon said further:

"This even goes far to show that the bodies of these saints shall yet live. God reckons His covenanted ones to be alive. He says, “The dead are raised.” He reckons them to be raised, and as He reckons nothing falsely, it is said by way of anticipation. “Your dead men shall live.” Inasmuch as a portion of these chosen ones is still in the earth, God, who reckons things that are not as though they were, looks upon their bodies as possessing life, because they are to possess life so soon. God is not only the God of Abraham’s soul, but of Abraham as a whole, his body, soul, and spirit." 

I agree completely. He said further:

"God is the God of Abraham’s body, we are sure of that, because the covenant seal was set upon the flesh of Abraham. Where the doubt might be, there is the confirming seal, namely, in his mortal body. There was no seal set upon his soul, for the soul had life, and could not see death, but it was set upon his body, which would die, to make sure that even it would live."

Again, I agree. 

The answer (reconciliation) seems to me requires affirmation of these things: 

1) God (or the Deity) is God of the dead in the same sense that the man Christ Jesus is Lord of the dead, and 

2) what Christ meant by "God of the dead" is not what is meant by the words "Lord of the dead." 

There is obvious difference also on the meaning of the word "dead" in each context. 

How did the Sadducees define that word? What did they believe about the afterlife? Did they believe in the immortality of the soul? In a bodily resurrection? In a world of spirits? In angels? 

Do the texts in the three Synoptic gospels that report this conversation Christ had with the Sadducees deal with the intermediate state at all? Or, is it only talking about the resurrection? Or, does the biblical idea of resurrection include the living of the soul or spirit in the afterlife before the resurrection of the body?

Beliefs of the Sadducees

"For the Sadducees say that there is no resurrection, neither angel, nor spirit: but the Pharisees confess both." (Acts 23: 8)

Wrote Dr. Albert Barnes in his commentary on this text:

No resurrection - Of the dead. By this doctrine they also understood that there was no future state, and that the soul did not exist after death. See the notes on Matthew 22:23. 

 

Neither angel - That there are no angels. They deny the existence of good or bad angels. See the notes on Matthew 3:7. 

 

Nor spirit - Nor soul. That there is nothing but matter. They were materialists, and supposed that all the operations which we ascribe to mind could be traced to some modification of matter. The Sadducees, says Josephus (Jewish Wars, book ii. chapter 8, section 14), "take away the belief of the immortal duration of the soul, and the punishments and rewards in Hades." "The doctrine of the Sadducees is this," says he (Antiq., book 18, chapter 1, section 4), "that souls die with the bodies." The opinion that the soul is material, and that there is nothing but matter in the universe, has been held by many philosophers, ancient and modern, as well as by the Sadducees." 

 

Christ in his message to the Sadducees taught that the soul or spirit of a man is immortal, that it does not die as the body, and he also testified to a spirit world and of the resurrection of the bodies that have died.

Barnes said:

"The two points in dispute were: 

 

(1) Whether the dead would be raised and exist in a future state; and, 

 

(2) Whether mind was distinct from matter. The Sadducees denied both, and the Pharisees believed both. Their belief of the Latter point was, that spirits existed in two forms - that of angels, and that of souls of people distinct from the body." 

Christ taught the real existence of spirit beings called "angels." He also taught that the disembodied state is an intermediate state for both righteous and unrighteous people, whether from the old or new testament. 

Christ is "Lord of All"

"Jesus Christ - He is Lord of all" (Acts 10: 36).

He is also called in several places "Lord of lords." (I Tim. 6: 15; Rev. 17:14) As the Son of God, as God in his divine nature or in the Godhead, Christ is both Lord and God of all creatures, in heaven, earth, and under the earth. As the incarnate Son of Man he has also become Lord over all, as the texts at the beginning of this chapter affirm.

The Lord Jesus said to the Sadducees (as explanation for his affirmations regarding the afterlife state of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob) "for all live to him" (Luke 20: 38) and this is the same thing Paul stated in Romans 14 when he says "none of us lives to himself." Recall that Paul said:

"For none of us lives to himself, and no one dies to himself. For if we live, we live to the Lord; and if we die, we die to the Lord. Therefore, whether we live or die, we are the Lord’s." (Rom. 14: 7-8)

One leading commentary on Luke 20: 38 asks - "Is “all” to be taken without qualification?" (Expositor's Greek Testament) But, the same question may be asked also of the passage in Romans. Both passages say that every living human being lives to the Lord, the Romans passage adding that everyone who dies likewise dies unto the Lord. I see no reason to limit "all" to only believers as many commentators do. 

The commentators at Precept Austin say (See here - emphasis mine):

"All live to Him (only found in Luke) - Note (1 What does Jesus mean with this phrase? John Calvin explains, “that believers, after…they have died in this world, lead a heavenly life with God." This deals with believers but does not really address the word "all" which would include unbelievers, therefore I believe MacArthur's comment is correct. MacArthur on all live to Him - All people—whether departed from their earthly bodies or not—are still living, and will live forever. No one is annihilated in death (cf. John 5:28–30). (Borrow The MacArthur study Bible)"

Again, why deny that all exist and continue because of God's will and work? MacArthur is correct. 

The same source also says:

"Bock on all live to Him - The additional explanation is that all live “to Him” or “before Him” (BDF §192). All life exists in relationship to the living God. The sovereign God is responsible for life (Acts 17:28; Ro 11:36; Col. 1:16; 3:3-4; 2 Cor. 5:1-10; 1 Pet. 3:18; 4:6). In fact, all life takes place in His power, whether current life or the life to come. In addition, once one knows God, one has everlasting life. Contextually, the reference is to the resurrection, not to the Pauline concept of life “in Christ” (against Ellis 1974: 237, with Marshall 1978: 743). (Luke : 2 Volumes (Baker Exegetical Commentary)"

I agree that this is what Christ meant by saying "all live to him." That simply means that you exist because God created you and that you exist, and continue to live, at his pleasure and by his providence. Though some exist whose destiny it will be to spend eternity in hell fire and torment, yet they nevertheless were created for God's purpose. Wrote Paul:

“But in a great house there are not only vessels of gold and of silver, but also of wood and of earth; and some to honour and some to dishonour. If a man therefore purge himself from these, he shall be a vessel unto honour, sanctified, and meet for the master's use, and prepared unto every good work.” (II Tim. 2: 20)

Those souls who die in their sins and spend eternity in hell's prison will forever be vessels to dishonor. They will still exist for God's purpose, but it will be an ignoble purpose. Even in hell the damned will "live to the Lord" (will exist for his purpose). Believers, on the other hand, will be forever vessels to honor, existing for and serving God's purpose in a nobler manner.

Wrote the apostle Paul:

"But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God." (I Cor. 11: 3)

The "headship" of which Paul speaks involves "lordship," or ruling authority.  "Head" may also denote being at the top, or being the superior. So, if "every man" means "every human being without exception," then this text settles all debate on whether Christ is Lord of all creatures, including Lord of the dead in the Underworld. Some commentators think that "every man" here denotes only believers and not every human being. Notice these examples:

"The allusion here is not to Christ as the Head of the whole human race and of all things (as in Ephesians 1:22; Colossians 1:16; Colossians 2:10), but as the Head of “the Body,” the Christian Church..." (Elliott)

"...what is meant, however, is every Christian man, is self-evident from this first clause; consequently, Paul is not thinking of the general order of creation (Hofmann), according to which Christ is the head of all things (Colossians 1:16 f., 1 Corinthians 2:10), but of the organization of Christian fellowship, as it is based upon the work of redemption." (Meyer)

But, this view is not correct, as we will see. First, however, let us note these comments from Albert Barnes' Commentary on what is entailed in being a "head" of something or some person or group.

"That the head ... - The word "head," in the Scriptures, is designed often to denote "master, ruler, chief." The word ראשׁ ro'sh is often thus used in the Old Testament; see Numbers 17:3; Numbers 25:15; Deuteronomy 28:13, Deuteronomy 28:44; Judges 10:18; Judges 11:8, Judges 11:11; 1 Samuel 15:17; 2 Samuel 22:44. In the New Testament the word is used in the sense of Lord, ruler, chief, in Ephesians 1:22; Ephesians 4:15; Ephesians 5:23; Colossians 2:10. Here it means that Christ is the ruler, director, or Lord of the Christian man. This truth was to be regarded in all their feelings and arrangements, and was never to be forgotten. Every Christian should recollect the relation in which he stands to him, as one that is suited to produce the strictest decorum, and a steady sense of subordination. Of every man - Every Christian. All acknowledge Christ as their Ruler and Master. They are subject to him; and in all proper ways recognize their subordination to him." (Barnes)

All this is good on the meaning of "head," but he is wrong to think that the headship of Christ over every man, in the text, is limited to believers, as did Elliott and Meyer. Wrote Dr. John Gill in his better commentary on the text:

"that the head of every man is Christ; Christ is the head of every individual human nature, as he is the Creator and Preserver of all men, and the donor of all the gifts of nature to them; of the light of nature, of reason, and of all the rational powers and faculties; he is the head of nature to all men, as he is of grace to his own people: and so he is as the Governor of all the nations of the earth, who whether they will or no are subject to him; and one day every knee shall bow to him, and every tongue confess that he is the Lord of all. Moreover, Christ is the head of every believing man; he is generally said to be the head of the church, and so of every man that is a member of it: he is a common public head, a representative one to all his elect..." 

It seems strange that anyone who believes in universal or general atonement on the basis of it being for "every man" (where 'every man' means 'every man without exception') and would here say "every man" denotes only believers (as do some Arminian commentators). However, Dr. Gill believes in a "limited atonement" and yet, ironically, allows that "every man" means every man without exception, as I also do. 

Christ is the head, the superior, the Lord, of every man, "man" being used for "human." Yes, he is "head" over other things and groups of creatures, such as "head of the body, the church" (Col. 1:18; Eph. 5: 23), but this does not exclude him being head and lord over all creatures, and all realms and dominions, and so Paul says "and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all principality and power." (Col. 2: 10) Sheol, Hades, or the Underworld is a power and dominion. Christ' being head over all, head over every man, and head of the body of the redeemed, is connected with his being head of all principality and power. 

There is simply no way that the Lordship of Christ, of the Messiah, of God incarnate, can be limited to believers only. He is either Lord of all or he is not Lord at all. This includes his being Lord of the living and the dead. He demonstrated that lordship over the dead in going to the Underworld and proclaiming his victory over sin and death, and by his "leading captivity captive."

Christ is received as Lord by believers, because they recognize, trust in, and adore (worship) his lordship and willfully subject themselves to his rule and government. But, he is Lord over all whether they believe it or not. 

My believing in the Lordship of Christ over me is not what makes him my Lord. He was my Lord even before I knew of him. My "making him Lord over my life" in the hour of repentance and faith, was my willing acceptance of his rule and authority, and when I became no longer a rebel to his rule. Prior to that time I was under the rule of Satan, and of the lusts of the flesh, and of a fallen nature, as all men. (See Acts 26: 18; Eph. 2: 1-3; II Tim. 2: 25-26; etc.) But, once I became a willing subject, servant, slave, citizen, of Christ the Lord and King I then began to obey him and his commands and to enjoy the rewards of such a state. Believers have a different attitude and belief towards God and Christ the Lord than do unbelievers. 

Nevertheless, Christ is the Lord even of those who deny him and he will be the one who judges them in the day of judgment. He will judge and condemn them for rejecting and rebelling against him as Lord (which he could not do if they were not already duty bound to acknowledge his lordship over them). He will force all to tell the truth, which will include acknowledging his lordship over them. This will include all the eternally damned humans and all the fallen angels and demons. The lordship of Christ over the wicked spirits in the Underworld may be logically inferred from his being "head" and "judge" and "king" of them. 

Notice these passages that also affirm that Christ is Lord of all, which includes the wicked spirits of the damned in the Underworld.

"But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him." (I Cor. 8: 6)

"He that glories, let him glory in the Lord." (II Cor. 10: 17)

These texts support the proposition that Christ is Lord even of those who reject him and of the wicked dead in the Underworld. 

Let us notice some more texts on how Christ is both Lord and Judge of the dead.

"And he commanded us to preach unto the people, and to testify that it is he which was ordained of God to be the Judge of quick and dead." (Acts 10: 42)

"I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom." (II Tim. 4: 1)

"Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead." (I Peter 4: 5)

Some will affirm that Christ is Judge of the dead but not Lord of the dead. But, lordship and rule are integral to being a judge. They will say "Lord of the dead" means "Lord of dead believers" but why does not "Judge of the dead" also mean "Judge of dead believers"? We certainly see the connection between Christ being Judge and Lord in these words of the Christ.

"And he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man. Do not marvel at this, for an hour is coming when all who are in the tombs will hear his voice and come out, those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment." (John. 5: 27-29)

"All who are in the tombs" or "graves" would include both saved and lost persons. He is the one who has the power and authority to summons the departed spirits in the Underworld to come forth and enter into their deceased bodies and stand before the judgment bar of heaven. His Lordship over both the living and the dead is evident in these words. 

All Creatures Belong To Christ by Right of Redemption

"For you were bought at a price; therefore glorify God in your body and in your spirit, which are God’s." (I Cor. 6: 20)

God owns, and Christ specially owns, the bodies and spirits of his people, as we have before stated. But, he also is Lord and owner of the bodies and spirits of all men, even of the damned in hell, as we have also stated. All men certainly have a duty to "glorify God" and Christ the Lord and to do so in their bodies and spirits. 

When the bible commands all men to acknowledge Christ as their Lord, were they not acknowledging his lordship over them? We have already seen where all creatures are commanded to, and actually will, publicly confess the lordship of Christ. (See Rom. 14: 11; Phil. 2: 10-11; Rev. 5: 13)

Beliefs about the Afterlife (xiv)

We began this book on the afterlife by looking at what ancient peoples believed about it, especially the Egyptians and Greeks. We also looked at what were the beliefs of the ancient Hebrews as revealed in the old testament scriptures (and as also revealed in primitive works of literature by Hebrew writers) about the afterlife, and saw where there were both similarities and differences between the Hebrew belief system and that of the pagan or polytheistic nations, such as Egypt and Greece. 

The similarities concerned the idea of rewards and punishments in the afterlife, and of the day of judgment, and of the immortality of the soul. We observed that the OT writers spoke of both the "grave" (Hebrew "queber") and of "sheol" (often translated as "hell"). We also observed how these ought not to be thought of as the same, and at the end of this section of the book, I will present much documentation from scholarly writers relative to this point. 

We will also be looking at the arguments that are made against the view that 1) believers before the death of Christ did not go directly to heaven but to a comforting happy place in the Underworld, and this is seen in the story of the rich man and Lazarus, and 2) that Christ descended to the Underworld of Hades. Following those chapters we will then look at some of the leading texts that are used in support of the idea of "soul sleep," and show how believers, since the death of Christ, have not gone to Hades, but have gone to Paradise, to the "third heaven," to be "with" Christ, and so only those who now die in sin go to the Underworld of Hades or Sheol.  

Back in chapter ten we listed these questions to study:

1) The place called Hades described 

2) Biblical Cosmology 

3) Christ Descent Into Hades 

4) Conquering of Hades by Christ and the Church 

5) Believers Moved From Hades to Heaven 

6) Unbelievers Sentence Announced and Inmates Addressed in Proclamation 

7) No Offers Of Pardon Given (salvation after death) 

8) Christ Becomes Lord Of Hades & The Damned

We have answered nearly all of those questions, although we will still have more to say that will answer in more detail some of these questions. Now let us focus on question number eight.

The scriptures at the top of this chapter deal with that area of our subject, of what Christ accomplished and demonstrated by his descent into the Underworld. They deal with Christ as Judge of the dead of Hades (and how his descent and ascent/resurrection are connected with his role as Judge) and also with his becoming "Lord" of all, of both the living and the dead. What does that mean?

Becoming Lord Of The Dead

"For none of us lives to himself, and no one dies to himself. For if we live, we live to the Lord; and if we die, we die to the Lord. Therefore, whether we live or die, we are the Lord’s. For to this end Christ died and rose and lived again, that He might be Lord of both the dead and the living. But why do you judge your brother? Or why do you show contempt for your brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written: “As I live, says the Lord, Every knee shall bow to Me, And every tongue shall confess to God.” So then each of us shall give account of himself to God. Therefore let us not judge one another anymore, but rather resolve this, not to put a stumbling block or a cause to fall in our brother’s way." (Romans 14: 7-13 nkjv)

We may paraphrase the texts from the Book of Acts, given at the top of this page, as -

"The very one you crucified has been made Lord and Christ" and "God raised him from among the dead in order to give assurance (faith or ground of faith - Greek) to all concerning Jesus Christ being Lord, Judge, and Messiah."

This same message is also stated in a different manner in the words from Paul in Romans 14. Christ has become, via his sufferings and trials, and by his conquering of Death and Hades, "Lord" of the dead as well as of the living. Connected with Christ's death, burial, and resurrection is his descent into the Underworld of Sheol or Hades. It too was a means of his exercising his Lordship as "the man Christ Jesus." For all who believe in Christ, his death and condescension into the "lowest parts of the earth," his death and triumph over death and Hades has become "the death of death." So Paul says that Christ "abolished death and brought life and immortality to light" as the gospel announces and reports. (II Tim. 1: 10) Christ, speaking to the apostle John several decades after Christ the Lord's ascension back to heaven (A.D. 30-32), brought forth this testimony from "the disciple whom Jesus loved":

"When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he laid his right hand on me, saying, “Fear not, I am the first and the last, and the living one. I died, and behold I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of Death and Hades." (Rev. 1: 17-18 ESV)

The Lord Jesus Christ said, while alive on earth, before his death and resurrection, "I am the way, the truth, and the life." (John 14: 6) He told Martha, just prior to raising Lazarus her brother from the dead, "I am the resurrection and the life." (John 11: 25) He is indeed "the living one." Just as light dispels darkness, so too does life overcome death through Christ who is "the life." He is the source of life for all men generally (as respects their physical or psychical life). That is taught in these words of the apostle John:

"In Him was life, and the life was the light of men. And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it...That was the true Light which gives light to every man coming into the world." (John 1: 4-5,9) 

Death is a darkness and vise versa, as life is a light. He was Lord of life, even in his humanity, and demonstrated that fact in his victorious ascent out of Hades, and by the resurrection of his body. Christ went to the place of the dead as "the living one," for though his body was lifeless his soul and spirit were not, as we saw from the words of the apostle Peter; And, he is the source of spiritual and eternal life, and bodily immortality, for all the righteous, for all believers. With tragic irony the Lord of life submits himself to death. In his death and resurrection he conquers death itself. Said the Lord Jesus:

"And do not fear those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Rather fear him who can destroy both soul and body in hell." (Matt. 10: 28)

The body of Christ was killed by his murderers. But, his soul and spirit were not. That is not unique but is common to all men. What is unique however is the fact of him being the one who "can destroy both soul and body in hell (gehenna)." This is because he is the Lord of life, because "by him all things consist." (Col. 1: 17) In Christ, as well as in God the Father, all men "live, move, and have their very being." (Acts 17: 28) 

It is because of Christ's victory over death and the Underworld of Hades that we now can say: "O death, where is thy sting? O Hades, where is thy victory?" (I Cor.15: 55)

His lordship involves ownership, sovereign rule and authority, governance and control, and judgment of the dead as well as the living. His being "Lord" of all is vitally connected with his being "Judge." 

In the preceding chapters we called attention to the fact that the Apostle Peter said that Christ was "ready to judge the living and the dead" (I Peter 4: 5) and it was in view of that fact that Christ died, said Peter, and went to Hades and preached there, and was then bodily resurrected. In other words, his dying and descending to the place of the dead not only demonstrated that his death was a real death, as much so as any other man, but, along with his bodily resurrection, qualified, constituted, and revealed him to be Lord, Judge, Deliverer, Redeemer, and as "Christ," God's singularly "anointed." 

In the preceding chapter we noticed the reasons Peter gave for Christ descending to the Underworld and of his proclamations there and of the words Peter used to state or make known purpose or intent, such as "for, for this reason" and "that" (or "in order that"; being an "hina clause"). They reveal what were the ends and means of Christ's dealings with the spirits of the dead in Hades as Lord, Judge, and Deliverer. The verses above from Acts and Romans show the connection between Christ's dealings with Hades and with him acting as Lord and Judge. Recall how we also observed how Jesus, as a result of his having been made Lord and Christ, via his victory over sin, death, Satan, and Hades, has "the keys of Hades and Death" and we can say "O Hades, where is your victory?" Notice again Paul's affirmation:

"For to this end Christ both died, and rose, and revived, that he might be Lord both of the dead and living." (Rom. 14: 9)

Wrote Barnes in his commentary on this text:

"That he might be Lord - Greek. That he might "rule over." The Greek word used here implies the idea of his being "proprietor" or "owner" as well as "ruler." It means that he might exercise entire dominion over all, as the sovereign Lawgiver and Lord."

Christ's descent into Hades is highly important and significant. Had he not died and gone to Hades as its Lord and conqueror then he could not, as a man, be viewed or act as, "Lord of the dead" but only as Lord of the living. His rule would be over "the land of the living" and not over "the land of the dead." 

The purpose, said Paul, similarly to Peter, for which Christ died, was buried, rose and revived (which included his descent in spirit to the Underworld) was "that" (hina - in order that) "he might be Lord both of living and dead." Christ, as a conqueror of an enemy's armies and capturer of the enemies lands and assets, planted heaven's flag of victory or standard right in the midst of Hades (like U.S. soldiers planted the flag on Iwo Jima).

Christ is Lord of all the dead. He owns them. They are his property and subjects of his dominion, and his will is strictly enforced in regard to them. They are subject to him and are obligated to acknowledge his lordship and sovereign dominion. 

The subjugation of Hades and its wicked spirits is a thing that Jesus did by his death and descent into the place of departed spirits. Recall how we spoke of Christ and his church taking the battle to the very gates of Hades.

"When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all." (I Cor. 15: 28 ESV)

Death and the Underworld have been subjected to Christ. This is spoken of by the apostle Paul in these words:

"Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." (Phil. 2: 9-11)

This is essentially what it means for Christ experiencing death and resurrection in order that he might be Lord of the dead. The dead, even the wicked dead, must acknowledge his sovereign rule over them. 

Christ is "the heir of all things." He has become owner and lord of all things by purchase and reward. In the previous chapters we have spoken of Christ obtaining the "spoils" by his victory over sin, death, and hell. He has legal title to all things and he says to his people as a result "all things are yours." (I Cor. 3: 21)

What is being stated in Romans 14: 9 is essentially the same thing Paul stated in Hebrews 2: 14 (a verse we referred to in previous chapters).

1) "to this end Christ both died, and rose, and revived, that he might be Lord both of the dead and living." (Rom. 14: 9)

2) "that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil." (Heb. 2: 14)

Christ's descent into and attack upon the Underworld were means of establishing his universal lordship.

Only Believers Purchased?

For none of us lives to himself, and no one dies to himself. For if we live, we live to the Lord; and if we die, we die to the Lord. Therefore, whether we live or die, we are the Lord’s. For to this end Christ died and rose and lived again, that He might be Lord of both the dead and the living. But why do you judge your brother? Or why do you show contempt for your brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written: “As I live, says the Lord, Every knee shall bow to Me, And every tongue shall confess to God.” So then each of us shall give account of himself to God.

"Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." (Phil. 2: 9-11)

I cite these words again so that we can have them before us again as we examine them more closely now. We begin by saying that there is no way that we can limit the personal pronouns of the above words to only believers, to only the saved portion of the human race, as many commentators do. Do they deny that Christ is Lord even of the dead? Of both the righteous dead and the unrighteous dead? Do the words "none of us" mean "none of us saved people" or "none of us human beings"? Who is intended by the words "whether we live or die, we are the Lord's"? Only believers who live a life of service to the Lord? Do the words "Lord of both the dead and the living" mean "Lord of both the living saints and the departed saints"? Why are the unrighteous dead excluded by such commentators? Why would we exclude those who died lost in sin from the judgment seat of Christ? Why would we exclude the wicked dead from the prophetic words "every knee shall bow to me" and "every tongue shall confess to God"? Why exclude the wicked dead from the words "every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord"? 

Notice these commentators, which give the common interpretation:

John Gill - "that he might be the Lord both of the dead and living; that is, of believers, whether dead or alive."

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown - "The grand object of His death was to acquire this absolute Lordship over His redeemed, both in their living and in their dying, as His of right."

But, the texts above cannot be limited to saved people. Christ is Lord over all men, both lost and saved. And, though the lost did not confess to God and confess Christ in their lives, yet, in the day of judgment, they will be forced by conscience to confess the sovereignty of God and of Christ. They will confess him, but they cannot love and adore him. 

Said Albert Barnes in his commentary on Philippians 2: 11 (emphasis mine):

"That Jesus Christ is Lord - The word "Lord," here, is used in its primitive and proper sense, as denoting owner, ruler, sovereign; compare the notes at Romans 14:9. The meaning is, that all should acknowledge him as the universal sovereign."

It is ironic that commentators who limit the text in Romans 14 to believers only, will not do so with Philippians 2: 11. Both passages are to be understood as affirming that Christ has become Lord of living people on earth and of dead people under the earth, Lord of Heaven, Earth, and the Underworld.

Redemption involves purchasing and taking ownership (lordship) and possession. So, did Christ redeem only believers? And only in the sense of individual human salvation? Is the cosmos in any sense redeemed? Earth and its animal creatures? Notice what the apostle Paul says:

"For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it in hope; because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God." (Rom. 8: 20-21 nkjv) 

Without the redemption that ensues from the sacrificial and atoning death of Christ, the "whole creation" could not be delivered from the bondage of corruption and death. Christ redeemed and purchased the whole creation, and every soul, be he righteous or unrighteous, destined for Hell or Heaven, must acknowledge Christ's ownership and lordship of them. 

In the scriptures Christ is said to have purchased believers, or the elect. (Acts 20: 28; I Cor. 6: 19-20), and this is why they "belong to" Christ. Belonging to Christ denotes salvation. Not belonging to him denotes damnation or condemnation. 

Christ becomes owner and possessor of his purchase of believers (as a reward of God the Father for his obedience and for his fulfilling of the covenant between him and the Father in becoming a sacrifice for sin). That purchase was made over two thousand years ago. But, taking actual active possession does not occur until one is joined to Christ by faith. It is then that we become the Lord's special possession (Titus 2:14 and 1 Peter 2: 9 - "God's special possession") and why others do not belong to Christ. 

Husbands and wives "belong to" each other. Christ, addressing the Father, said - "And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them." (John 17: 10) Here those who belong to Christ are the ones who are his people by purchase and by covenant. 

Purchasing occurs prior to taking ownership and possession, as a general rule. Further, the thing that is purchased "belongs to" the purchaser in both senses, legally once a price is paid, and then when the purchaser takes or seizes his property, which may be immediately or later. 

So, we affirm that Christ purchased all men and things by his death and victorious resurrection. Yet, not all for the same end. Though Christ owns even the eternally damned, they are not his "peculiar" or "special possession," his treasure. Believers, or the elect, have been purchased for salvation, for bringing them into the family of God. Unbelievers have been purchased, but not for salvation. 

Jesus spoke a parable and said:

“Again, the kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in a field, which a man found and hid; and for joy over it he goes and sells all that he has and buys that field." (Matt. 13: 44 nkjv)

Just as the man who desired the hidden treasure in the field bought the field so too has the Lord purchased all men and all things by his redemption, yet it is only believers (the elect) who are the treasure, who are Christ's special possession or peculiar treasure. They are in the world but not of the world. In the preceding parable of the wheat and the tares, Christ said "the field is the world" (vs. 38). All things belong to Christ, but believers belong to the Lord in a special way.

In the next chapter we will continue with our analysis of the doctrine of Christ's Lordship over the dead, over the Underworld.

Beliefs about the Afterlife (xiii)

"For Christ also suffered for sins once for all time, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit; in which He also went and made proclamation to the spirits in prison, who once were disobedient when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water." (I Peter 3: 18-20 nasb)

"Who shall render account to him, who is ready to judge the living and the dead. For, for this cause was the gospel preached also to the dead: that they might be judged indeed according to men, in the flesh; but may live according to God, in the Spirit." (I Peter 4: 5-6 Douay-Rheims Bible)

In this chapter we will continue our analysis of I Peter 4: 6 and begin with Peter's stated reason why the gospel was preached to the dead by Christ upon his descent into the Underworld of Hades. We have already contended that I Peter 4: 6 is describing the same preaching event that was previously mentioned by Peter in I Peter 3: 19. The above chart lists some of the chief similarities and differences between the two texts. In the preceding chapter we began to look closely at the text of I Peter 4: 6 and left off with going into detail about the purpose clause in the passage.

The Purpose Clause

Since we are eager as readers of Peter's words to hear what reasons he gives for Christ going to Hades to preach to the inhabitants there, we would naturally want to notice what comes after the word "that," what in Greek is "hina," which denotes purpose and often signals the presence of a "purpose clause." Let us read Peter's words with an ellipsis. "For for this reason was the gospel preached to them who are dead, that they might be..." That they might be what? Be saved? Is that not what we might expect Peter to say since he says that Christ went there to preach the gospel, among other things? Is not saving souls the end and purpose of preaching? But, he does not say "that they might be saved" but says rather that the dead in Hades were preached the gospel in order "that they might be judged." That is striking and should lead us in another direction in ascertaining Christ's purpose in preaching in Hades. 

It seems that the purpose of Christ's proclamations and announcements in Hades was rather for the purpose of judgment, or part of important and necessary preliminaries for trial and judgment procedure. 

To what do the words "for this reason" refer? To what goes before or what follows? Doubtless it refers to what goes before. In other words, Christ being "ready" to "judge the living and the dead" is the reason why he went to the Underworld and made announcements. 

Barnes' Notes on the Bible says:

"For, for this cause - The expression, "For, for this cause," refers to an end to be reached, or an object to be gained, or a reason why anything referred to is done. The end or reason why the thing referred to here, to wit, that "the gospel was preached to the dead," was done, is stated in the subsequent part of the verse to have been "that they might be judged," etc. It was with reference to this, or in order that this might be, that the gospel was preached to them."

That is not totally correct, however. In the KJV there is a double "for." It says "for, for this..." It was because Christ was ready and prepared to judge the dead, as well as the living, that he went to the Underworld and made proclamation, and was then resurrected, and ascended to the right hand of God. Further, the second "for" in the text and the word "that" (hina) give the same or restates the general purpose as served by Christ in his making announcements and proclamations in Hades. It was not only to show that Christ was ready, mentally or otherwise, for acting as judge of all, but in order that the dead in the Underworld might themselves be "judged," or their cases decided upon in some ways, or be distinguished by him upon his arrival in the Underworld. 

In other words, in some ways he was carrying out his role as Judge and Lord of the dead by his judicial proclamations in Hades and was preparing himself for the administration of heaven's judgment. At the same time he was also declaring some initial judgments while in the Underworld pertaining to the occupants of Hades. 

Thus, the evidence so far is that the preaching of Christ in Hades was not in order to save anyone from his or her state of condemnation but was rather a means towards bringing the final day of judgment closer to reality. 

Greek scholar and bible commentator, Dr. Henry Alford, in Alford's Commentary (here), wrote:

"For (assigns a reason for the κρῖναι νεκρούς just mentioned) to this end (viz. that enunciated by the ἵνα which follows: see ref. John; ch. 1Pe 3:9) to dead men also (as well as to living, which is the ordinary case." 

So, Alford would disagree with Barnes, as noted before. "For this reason" (Greek "eis touto") literally  means "unto this end." As Alford said, The words point back to Christ being "ready" to judge the living and the dead." Christ preached to the dead as a means to an end, the end being the judgment of the dead in addition to the judgment of the living. 

Alford, after showing the error of several views, also wrote:

"Next, we have the view (Calv., al.) that the particular case, on which the general νεκροῖς  (dead ones - SG) is founded, is that of such persecuted Christians as should decease before the Lord’s coming. To this the first of the before raised objections, that νεκροῖς must mean ‘now dead,’ and εὐηγγ . refer to a former preaching when they were alive, applies in full force. And this I should hold to be fatal to it. It must be confessed, that it agrees better with the context than the last: for while that finds no assignable contextual justification, it might be said in this case, that for this very reason was the Gospel preached to those among you who have suffered death at the hands of persecutors, even hereunto were they called, that they might indeed be judged, condemned, by human persecution, as regards the flesh, but notwithstanding might live eternally with God as regards the spirit. Still I conceive we are not at liberty to receive it, on account of the above objection. If καὶ νεκροῖς εὐηγγελίσθη may mean, “the Gospel was preached to some during their lifetime, who are now dead,” exegesis has no longer any fixed rule, and Scripture may be made to prove any thing. (Bengel takes it in both the last-mentioned references: to the persecutors, and to the Christians.)" 

That expresses my sentiments. He would disagree with Wuest (though both believed in Christ's descent into the Underworld). "The dead" are not the spiritually dead (unconverted), but the physically dead. "The living and dead" means those who have not died (living) versus those who have died (dead). "Preached the gospel to them who are dead" must be interpreted as "preached to them who are dead physically." The meaning for "the dead" denotes the same thing in verse 5 and then in verse 6. He is also opposed to those translators who translate the text so as to say "unto the now dead ones."  

The evidence is clear that the reason that Peter assigns for Christ descent into Hades to preach was 

1) Because he was ready (or prepared) to judge both living and dead, and 

2) That the dead in Hades might be judged as "men in the flesh" or as "men in the spirit." 

Consider how Christ's arrival in Hades would have been perceived by the occupants therein. He could be viewed as a Warden, as a Judge, as a Prosecutor, as a Lord over all, including Hades, as a Deliverer, etc. The inhabitants of Hades no doubt would have recognized that Christ, upon his arrival, was a human who had died, but they would also soon realize that he was no normal or mere human being, but was rather the Son of God and Lord from Heaven joined to his human soul. Surely the context emphasizes that Christ's preaching in Hades has to do with the judgment of the dead.

 

The latter part of verse six is actually more difficult to grasp the meaning than are the first parts of the text. It is not difficult to understand what "the gospel was preached to them who are dead" means. It is also not difficult to understand "that they might be judged" means. However, I find the remaining words and phrases awkward. Why and how judged according to or as "men in the flesh"? Or, why and how judged according to or as men "alive to God in the spirit"? 

Who is alluded (or presupposed) to be the "judge" in the words "that they might be judged as men in the flesh"? Who is referred to by the pronoun "they"? Depending on which interpretation one takes (of the fact of Christ preaching to the dead, or of his descent into Hades), one will answer this question differently. 

Some will say that "judged according to men in the flesh" means that men in the flesh are doing the judging. The words "according to" are interpreted to mean "by," and so it is "that they (dead ones) might be judged BY men in the flesh." However, it seems clear that the judge is the one who is now "ready to judge the living and the dead." Christ is "ready, willing, and able" to judge all, living people and even the dead people. He is prepared for the judgment trial. To him we may apply the words of the Psalmist who said: 

"But the LORD shall endure forever; He has prepared His throne for judgment. He shall judge the world in righteousness, And He shall administer judgment for the peoples in uprightness." (Psa. 9: 7-8) 

In fact, this is what is said of the Lord Jesus Christ in the new testament. 

"He has appointed a day on which He will judge the world in righteousness by the Man whom He has ordained. He has given assurance of this to all by raising Him from the dead.” (Acts 17: 31)

Christ descent into Hades and his proclamations there were acts of judgment, or judicial decision, and they served also as an important step in Heaven's judicial procedure. Wrote James:

"Do not grumble against one another, brethren, lest you be condemned. Behold, the Judge is standing at the door!" (James 5: 9)

Literally, the text says "he stands already before the door." Says another Commentary (Contending for the Faith - here):

""Standeth" (hesteken) is a perfect tense verb conveying the thought "He has been standing and even now is still there." "Before the door" uses the preposition pro (meaning before) and may be translated "at the door." "Door" is actually plural in the Greek (ton thuron) and may indicate double doors. The picture James presents is that of Christ standing behind double doors, ready to burst through at any time for judgment." 

In other words, it is just like we see today in a courtroom where trial is about to begin. The courtroom's various occupants, prior to the judge entering, would be members of the jury, the prosecutors, the court personnel, the guards, the audience, defense attorneys, etc. The judge would be standing outside one of the doors leading to the courtroom and would enter at the proper time and the words "all rise" would be heard in the courtroom. Prior to his entrance, all eyes would be on the door(s) through which the judge would enter the courtroom. Such is the imagery of the words of James. Christ "stands before the doors" of the courtroom, and this means all the same as saying that Christ is now "ready to hear and judge" the case. 

It seems likely that Christ, during his time in the flesh on earth, before his death on the cross, was not quite "ready" to judge the living and the dead. We know that he was "ready" to begin the trial (judgment day) for both living and dead at the time that Peter wrote his first epistle, for he says in the text (vs. 5) that Christ is "now ready to judge the living and the dead." 

Since, as we will prove, Christ did not come the first time for the purpose of judging all men, of initiating judgment day, we can say that he was not "ready" at that time to sit as the judge of living and dead. But, after having finished his work of bearing the sins of many (as a sacrificial substitute), and of having brought reconciliation between God and sinners, and after having borne witness in Hades, and having been risen from the dead, and having ascended to the highest heaven and taken his seat on the right hand of God, he is now more than "ready" to judge the living and the dead (as Peter said). Even in the days of James and the first Christians, Christ was "standing before the door," telling them that judgment day for all was imminent, that nothing but the court's patience puts it off. 

As proof that Christ's first coming was not for judgment, we notice that Jesus said - "for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world." (John 12: 47) He also said:

"For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved." (John 3: 17)

Those are true statements relative to his first coming, but they are not true of his second coming, for at his second coming he will indeed come to judge and condemn the world. It may be said that Christ, while he was alive in the flesh, before his sacrificial death, was not yet "ready" to judge the living and the dead. But, after having died and been raised to life he has been made ready. His focus now turns to his second coming, which will be a coming to judge, to condemn, to execute sentence. And the message of warning in the gospel is "here comes the judge"! Christ also said:

“You judge according to the flesh; I judge no one. “And yet if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I am not alone, but I am with the Father who sent Me." (John 8: 15-16)

Who is doing the judging? Was the preaching to the dead spirits in Hades not a judicial proceeding? 

Could the "dead ones" in this verse be a reference to the righteous dead in upper Hades in Abraham's Bosom? The text seems to apply to all the human occupants of the Underworld. Peter does not say "the gospel preached to some of them who are dead," which would be proper to say if he only preached to the righteous in the "limbus patrum," or "Abraham's Bosom," since they are only one portion of the inhabitants of the Underworld. But, as we have shown, the gospel will be preached to all in some sense.

Translation Difficulties

The difficulty in properly interpreting the last half of our text can be seen by looking at some of the various ways it is given in English translations. Following the words "that they might be" (future subjunctive) we have these translations of the rest of verse six - 

"that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit." (KJV)

"that though they are judged in the flesh as men, they may live in the spirit according to the will of God." (NASB)

"that though judged in the flesh the way people are, they might live in the spirit the way God does." (ESV)

"also, that they might be judged, as regards men, after [the] flesh, but live, as regards God, after [the] Spirit." (Darby)

"so that, although they might be judged by men in the fleshly realm, they might live by God in the spiritual realm." (Holman Christian Standard)

"to those who had been judged in their physical existence as everyone is judged; it was preached to them so that in their spiritual existence they may live as God lives." (Good News Translation)

"that they might be judged indeed as men in the flesh, but live as to God in the spirit." (Hebew Names Version)

"Human judges said they were guilty as far as their bodies were concerned. But God set their spirits free to live as he wanted them to." (NIRV)

There are many more we could supply, but these are sufficient to show how getting the latter half of 4: 6 translated in a manner that English people can understand and properly interpret is very difficult. Also, none of them explains what is meant by being "judged according to men in the flesh" nor what is meant by "alive to God in the spirit." Also, we see how translators are interpreters, and each may interpret differently, and where literal word for word translation worsens our comprehension in English (other non Greek languages too) of Peter's words.

It ought not to be interpreted as meaning Christ preached to the living, nor to the living who have died, but preaching to the spirits of the dead. It ought to explain the reason for Christ preaching to the dead ones. To make it say that the purpose of the preaching was to save the souls of departed saints is no different than the purpose to save believers who have not yet died and departed. 

No translation or bible commentary, it seems, wants to define what it means for "they" (the dead ones who were addressed by the Lord in preaching) to be "judged according to men in the flesh." If you look at the above translations you will see how different are their renderings. 

There are two occurrences of "according to" (kjv) in the passage. "According to men in the flesh" as opposed to "according to God in the spirit." 

"According to" means "as reported by" or "as stated by" and refers to a belief or opinion which is not the speaker's opinion. The Greek word is "kata" and Strong says that it is translated as follows (kjv):

according to (107x), after (61x), against (58x), in (36x), by (27x), daily (with G2250) (15x), as (11x), miscellaneous (165x).

The words "that they might be judged" (denoting purpose) connects with two effects; 1) that they might be judged according to (or "as") "men in the flesh", or 2) that they might be judged according to (or "as") men who are "alive to God in spirit."  

Here we see that "kata" may sometimes carry the meaning of "by" and this would give credence to saying that the text may be viewed as saying "that they might be judged by (kata) men in the flesh." We also see how "kata" may be translated or carry the sense of "as." That is the way I see it. I think "as" or "according to" convey the same idea. Notice also how "kata" has 165 miscellaneous English word equivalents other than the major ones named. 

The word(s) "according to" or "as" (kata) are used twice in the text. First there is "according to men" and then "according to God." 

Several such couplings of opposites are seen in the text:

1. "According to men..." versus "according to God."

2. "In (the) flesh" versus "in (the) spirit."

3. "But alive to God" versus "dead to God in spirit" (implied)

4. "Put to death in flesh" versus "made alive in spirit"

5.  The "living ones" versus the "dead ones."

in-order-that · they-may-be-judged · on-one-hand (μεν) · according to · men · to-flesh · yet-on-the-other-hand (δε) · may-be-alive-ing · according-to · God · in-spirit."

Since I have concluded and proven that 1) the one doing the judging is the same judge of verse five, which is Christ, the one who is ready to judge living and dead, and 2) the preaching to the dead of 4: 6 is the same preaching to the dead of 3: 19, I can therefore paraphrase the text as - 

"for this reason (because Christ is ready to judge living and dead) was the gospel preached (by Christ in his descent into the Underworld) even to dead ones (in Hades), in order that they (dead ones) might be judged (their cases decided by Christ) as being men in the flesh (as carnal depraved men) on the one hand, or judged as men alive to God in spirit, on the other hand."  

We have also seen how it is necessary to decide whether the hina clause and the words "that they might be" are to be connected only with "judged" or whether it is also implied and to be included with the words "but living to God in spirit." There is an "either/or" in the text. It is seen in the "men...de" construction and in the double use of the conjunction word "kata," or "according to" or "as" that we have already mentioned. 

When Christ made proclamations to the inhabitants of Hades and preached the gospel there, he also judged them and discriminated between them on the basis of whether they were in the believer's section or unbeliever's. His preaching was in the context of a Lord and Judge over all the occupants of the Underworld, and acted as a Deliverer to those in the comforting side of Hades. The dead spirits of Hades were recognized by Christ the Judge as being either "flesh men" (and therefore in the tormenting place of Dives) or "spiritually alive God men," or "according to" whether they are judged by Christ to be one or the other.

Does this judgment of the dead in Hades, along with or via the preaching of Christ there (as a disembodied spirit), as the text seems to affirm, seem unnecessary and redundant? If they are already divided (as result of a judgment when they died and appeared at the entry gates of the Underworld), having been placed either on the comforting happy side where the righteous are gathered (as Lazarus) or in the lower side of the gulf where we saw that the rich man, called "Dives," was placed, then Christ judging one as a man of the flesh or a man of God in the spirit, upon his entry there would be nothing more than a stamp of approval and a certification that no one was where he or she should not be. 

In reply let us consider and agree that every soul or spirit is "judged" when it leaves the body for it is directed or escorted to either the place of the righteous ("Abraham's Bosom" for OT believers or "Paradise" or the "Third Heaven" for NT believers) or to the place of the unrighteous (tormenting flames). That is taught in the story of Lazarus and Dives. It is also taught in these words of Paul in his Hebrew Letter:

"And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation." (9: 27-28)

Judgment comes to a soul when it leaves the body and must go to the place of departed spirits and will go either to heaven or hell. But, that is not the end of all judgment. There is yet the great day of judgment after the resurrection of the dead, when all will be judged. So, just as being judged at the time of death does not mean there is not more judgment or trial to come, so Christ judging the dead when entering the Underworld did not signal an end to all judgment and trial. There are stages of judgment. Recall that Jesus was tried by several courts and judges during his trial.

On The One Hand

We mentioned, citing Dr. White on I Peter 3: 19-20, about the Greek "classic men…de construction," of the text, "which students of Greek recognize as meaning “on the one hand this…but on the other that…” That same construction is seen in I Peter 4: 6.

"That they might be judged ('men' - "indeed") on the one hand, according to men in the flesh, they might live on the other hand ('de' - "however") according to God in the spirit." 

In I Peter 3: 19 we mentioned earlier how there was a classic "men...de" construction, which was the Greek way to say as we do "on one hand" and "on the other hand." So we may read the text as - "being put to death in the flesh (on the one hand) but made alive in the spirit (on the other hand)." 

In our text in I Peter 4: 6 the beginning of the first clause we have μέν (or men) and often it is omitted or not even translated. That is a mistake. It is sometimes translated as "indeed" and sometimes as "though." At the beginning of the second clause is the conjunction δέ (or de) which is most often translated as "but." Since most English Bibles don’t translate the μέν (men) we don’t easily recognize this discourse construction.

Which Interpretation Fits the Context?

Is what Peter says about preaching to the spirits in prison out of context? 

No, he is not. What he says about Christ's going to hell and preaching even to the dead is an encouragement for Christians to not fear their own deaths at the hands of persecutors as a result of preaching the good news. Nor should they fear that their preaching is useless when they have no converts, and the case of Christ preaching to Hell's degenerates upholds this fact. Preaching can serve other purposes other than salvation, which it did in the case of the damned in Hades. 

"He who rejects Me, and does not receive My words, has that which judges him— the word that I have spoken will judge him in the last day." (John 12: 48)

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." (Matt. 24: 14)

"Witness" is from the Greek word "martyrion" (from which we get our word "martyr") and denotes testimony. 

As I have already stated, the gospel was proclaimed or testified to in Hades as in a judgment or trial. It was not intended for deliverance of any of the condemned. For OT believers who were in the comforting and joyous side of Hades, the appearance and proclamations of Christ would signal a kind of deliverance for them in that their place would be from then on in the third heaven or paradise with Christ. 

Apostolic Emphasis

"Even to the dead" (Greek "kai nekrois"). "Kai" is often translated as "and" but often carries the meaning of "even" and "also." It also acts as an intensive, "even to the dead!" But, if the dead who are addressed in preaching are really not dead, but living, at the time of the preaching of Christ, the emphasis loses its sense. 

Consider that we may say - "bible preachers preached the word of God to everyone, EVEN to the dead bones through Ezekiel." That is similar to Peter's words.

It is not denied that it is an attractive interpretation to believe that the text supports the proposition that people who have died can be saved in the afterlife from torment. Though I can see why some would be led to think Christ preached in Hades to give the condemned a chance of salvation from Peter's words, yet in reality his words teach just the opposite.

Beliefs about the Afterlife (xii)

"I charge you therefore before God and the Lord Jesus Christ, 

who will judge the living and the dead 

at His appearing and His kingdom." 

(II Tim. 4: 1)

Said one leading commentator in comments upon I Peter 4: 6, the text we are still examining (See here at Precept Austin web page):

"Warning! Someone has said this is the most difficult verse in the Bible to interpret! There are some 20 interpretations according to one writer! We will not even attempt to go there, but recommend that you be a Berean." (emphasis mine)

In this part of our series on the topic of the afterlife, we are focusing on it as it relates to the Lord Jesus Christ, and I am giving my interpretation of I Peter 3: 19 and 4: 6, the two passages that speak of Christ preaching to the dead in the Underworld of Sheol or Hades, to his descent into the place of the dead. As I stated previously I took a different view when a novice bible student than the one I believe now. I have studied this subject off and on over the past fifty plus years. At first I settled on the most favored view that the dead had the gospel preached to them while they were alive so that the text should be read as saying "for this reason the gospel was preached to men before they died," or something very similar.

I also generally would affirm that Jesus did not go in spirit to Hades when he died but went to Heaven and stayed there for the three days and nights in which his spirit was separated from his body (when it was dead). I believed, like many others, that the promise made to the thief on the cross (on the right hand of Christ), in the words "today you will be with me in paradise," taught that paradise or heaven was the only place Christ was "in spirit" between his death and resurrection. However, as previously stated, I never fully accepted that interpretation and there were many other texts, dealing with "leading captivity captive," and Christ going into "the heart of the earth," etc. that nagged at me. Sometimes I put deeper study of the subject on a shelf for another day (when I could access more materials such as commentaries). What the passages were saying was harder for me to accept than to understand (as I have previously observed about the reluctance of many bible students to accept it as proof that Christ did descend to the Underworld). 

My present interpretation is not novel, but orthodox. In fact, it is the view, not only of the apostles and early Christians, but of the scriptures themselves. It was arrived at after many years of thinking about the texts integral to the question. It represents, at least on my part, a mature interpretation, an unbiased opinion.

How important is a correct understanding of this subject, and texts dealing with it? I cannot answer that question. I can only say that since embracing the orthodox view I have seen truths about Christ's experience in the afterlife that leaves me amazed and filled with wonder. When I now read about Christ having the keys of Hades and Death, I have a better understanding of Christ's relationship to Hades and Death. Further, the nagging doubt about whether I was interpreting the text correctly, or twisting it, has left me.

In this chapter we are still considering what is the right interpretation and translation of both I Peter 3: 18-20 and 4: 5-6. We will begin this section of our study by looking at what is meant by the words "for this reason" (4: 6) and at the purpose(s) connected with the Greek "hina" (a word denoting purpose or intent, and involving what is called a "hina clause"; And is often translated by the English word "that"). The text is stating the reason for Christ preaching the gospel to the inhabitants of the Underworld. It would be an answer to our anxious question - "for what purpose did Christ go to the Underworld and there proclaim the good news?" 

Though Peter does not go into any detail in answering that question (many will be left with more questions than answers about the reason why the Lord went to Hades and preached there), nevertheless he does offer at least one reason why. Peter surely believed that there were other reasons for Christ going to Hades and preaching there than the one mentioned by him in these words. The reason for Christ preaching in Hades had to do with him acting as Lord and Judge of the dead. Let us again cite the words we are still examining. 

"They will give an account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead. For this reason the gospel was preached also to those who are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit." (I Peter 4: 5-6)

Well did one commentator write in regard to the prima facie reading of this inspired text:

"No one with an un-preoccupied mind could doubt, taking this clause by itself, that the persons to whom this preaching was made were dead at the time of being preached to. If this is the case, then, pretty obviously, St. Peter is carrying us back to his teaching of 1Peter 3:19, and is explaining further the purpose of Christ’s descent into hell." (Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers) 

That is what I also believe. As I said, I did not accept this at one time, but there was constant nagging doubt about my view resulting from my refusal to accept the obvious meaning of the text. I was fearful that it might uphold the doctrine that it was possible to die lost and condemned, go to the place of the damned in Hades, and yet be saved and go to heaven. That fear is gone through a proper understanding of the descent of Christ into the Underworld. Christ went to Hell, preached there, and it was not for the salvation of any who had died condemned and were on the torment side of the gulf of Hades. His preaching in hell had other reasons than that of salvation. Further, we can hardly call the taking of old testament believers into the third heaven (paradise) a saving of them, unless we want to say they were saved from the confinement of Hades, and from not enjoying the fullness of Heaven.

Wrote Greek scholar and bible commentator Kenneth Wuest (See here):

"The words “by which” in the Greek text are en hoi, a preposition and a relative pronoun, the latter either in the locative or the instrumental cases, since the preposition is used with both cases. The pronoun is either masculine or neuter, and there being a neuter noun “spirit” immediately preceding it, the word “which” according to the rules of Greek grammar, refers back to the word “spirit.” One could translate either “in which spirit,” or “by means of which spirit.” The word “went” is a translation of poreuomai, a word that is used of one travelling, going on a journey. The translation reads now, “in which (human) spirit having proceeded,” or, “by means of which human spirit having proceeded.” This speaks of our Lord in His disembodied state after He had spoken the words, “Into thy hands I commend my spirit” (Luke 23:46). His human body was laid in Joseph’s tomb, but He as the Man Christ Jesus, possessing His human soul and human spirit, departed this life. It is clear that our Lord as the Man Christ Jesus went to the place of the departed dead called in the Old Testament “sheol” and in the New Testament, “hell” (Acts 2:27), the word “hell” being the translation of the Greek word “Hades.” But Peter is not speaking of that here. Peter says “in which” or “by means of which (human) spirit also having proceeded, He preached unto the spirits in prison.” The word “also” speaks of the fact that it was in His human spirit as made alive by the Holy Spirit that our Lord proceeded." 

I think that is the normal reading of the text and attempts to deny it, or change its meaning, are vain, and are therefore to be rejected. 

Wuest believes that "the spirits in prison" are the fallen angels of Genesis six and the antediluvian wickedness, a view I have previously referred to. Said Wuest:

"But are the spirits of our First Peter passage angels or demons? Peter tells us that these spirits were in prison. There are just two prisons in the unseen world where evil spirits are confined, Tartarus (II Peter 2:4, “hell” tartarosas where fallen angels are kept; and the Bottomless Pit (Rev. 9:1–12). When our Lord was about to cast out the demons from the maniac of Gadara, they besought Him not to cast them into the deep, the abusson (Luke 8:31). The words “bottomless pit” of Revelation 9:1 are literally “the well of the abusson,” same Greek word as used in Luke 8:31, which fixes the Bottomless Pit as the prison house of demons. To which place did our Lord go and preach? Peter in his first epistle (3:19, 20) and in his second epistle (2:4, 5) links spirits and angels with the flood and states that they sinned at that time. The inference should be clear that he is referring to the same beings, for Hebrews uses the words “angels” and “spirits” as designating the same created beings, and Peter is just following the practice of other inspired writers."

I do not find strong objection to those commentators who see the "spirits in prison" as the fallen angels of Genesis chapter six, and not to the humans of that age who died in the flood. Wuest bases his interpretation on the fact that angels are more generally called "spirits" in scripture than are human beings. He does acknowledge, however, that humans who have died and in spirit left bodies are sometimes called "spirits." 

I also think that the places mentioned by Wuest (Tartarus, Abyss, bottomless pit) are simply places within the whole of Hades or the Underworld. Abraham's festive table, with his kin (believers), occupy the paradisaical upper side of the divided Underworld. We can safely say that there are divisions or sections of the Underworld, concerning which we have already written in earlier chapters (bible cosmology). 

Some also believe the same as Wuest (spirits in prison being the fallen angels) and offer another reason to the ones mentioned by him. These say that the background of Peter's words is the Book of Enoch, called "Enoch1," a book known by Peter and the early Christians. Many bible scholars say that both Peter's and Jude's writings, allude to things that are written in the book of Enoch. Jude even refers to a prophecy of Enoch that is found in Enoch, a verse we have already cited ("Behold the Lord comes..."). 

In Enoch the fallen angels (called the "watchers") send Enoch from the Underworld (Tartarus) to Heaven to carry their petition to God for pardon and Enoch comes back with the message of "no." There is truth in this view, and the Enoch story no doubt was in the back of Peter's mind and a context or paradigm for what Peter said about the fall of the angels; And, there may be a similarity between the message Christ brings from heaven to Hades and the message Enoch brought from heaven and delivered to the fallen angels who were in the lowest hell. Christ also would have proclaimed "no" to the requests of the damned, whether men or angels, who sought pardon, mercy, or acquittal. 

It seems clear to me that those "spirits in prison" (who are described as they who were "at one time disobedient at the time when God was longsuffering while the ark was being built") are identified with those who died in the flood, and this implies that they had physical bodies. No pure spirit beings were drowned in the flood. God was showing longsuffering not to the fallen angels while the ark was being built but to sinful human beings. 

It could be argued that the "sons of God" (angels) who mated with the "daughters of men," had taken on bodily forms in order to procreate and thus their bodies may have been destroyed in the flood. Also, their hybrid offspring, the "giants" or "nephilim," would have had giant physical bodies and they too would have been destroyed in the flood. 

I do not doubt that Christ had a message for the fallen angels, but don't believe that is what Peter is referring to (in 3: 19), but is rather a message Christ gave to disobedient humans who died in the flood, and who composed "the world of the ungodly" (Peter's words). Consider the fact that "the spirits in prison" of 3: 19 are part of the larger class called "dead ones" in 4: 6. Angels do not die, for they have no physical bodies. 

Christ preached the gospel to "the dead ones." This implies that they were human beings for they had experienced physical death, and then entered the Underworld or afterlife as a conscious disembodied spirit. The simple subject "the dead" or "dead ones," nearly always, in the bible, refers to human beings who have died. This does not deny that angels and spirits may not die in some non physical or metaphysical sense. The fallen angels will spend eternity in Gehenna, in the "Lake of Fire," "which is the second death." (Rev. 20: 14) But, they are never called nor included in the group called "the dead." 

Further, Wuest seems to imply that the "demons" are the same as the fallen "angels" or "sons of God" of Genesis chapter six, which is a common error. However, I believe, along with others, that the demons are the spirits of the wicked human dead and are not angelic spirits. (See my writings and notes on that subject in my blogs) So, in preaching to the "dead ones" in Hades he is preaching to demons by his preaching to the wicked spirits of deceased humans. He is not specifically said to be preaching to fallen angels in either text (3: 19 & 4: 6). They rather show what Christ said to the human occupants of the Underworld. Reason and inference do tell us that Christ no doubt had things to announce to Satan and the fallen angels and their monstrous offspring (Nephilim or giants). 

Wuest is right to defend the view that Christ descended in spirit to Hades. That is the main point. He is a Greek scholar and he affirms, as other such scholars, that the text says that Christ himself went in his spirit, when it left his crucified body, to the place of departed spirits. He does not believe that Peter is affirming that Christ went in spirit to the antediluvian sinners and preached to them via Noah, at least as regards the 3: 19 passage. 

Some think that the idea of Christ descending into the Underworld is a "Catholic" doctrine, and not a Protestant belief, certainly not "Baptistic." But, that is not the case. Christ descent into the Underworld was believed by Christians in the first century, long before there was a "Catholic Church," certainly before there was a "Roman" Catholic church. 

However, the error of the Catholics was not their idea of a "limbus patrum" (Abraham's bosom) where all OT believers were gathered awaiting Christ's coming, for many Protestants and some Baptists have believed such. Nor was their belief that Christ descended to Hades an error, for the first Christians believed it, and as do many Protestants, including Baptists as myself. No, their error about Christ's descent relates to their idea about "Purgatory," and about their contention that salvation or redemption is possible for those who have gone to the Underworld as condemned criminals under sentence.  

Wuest also wrote:

"Our Lord therefore, between His death on the Cross and His resurrection from Joseph’s tomb, preached to the fallen angels in Tartarus. But what did He preach to them? The word translated “preached” here is kerusso. The word was used in secular Greek of an official announcement or proclamation made by a representative of a government. The word in itself does not indicate the content of the message. A qualifying phrase must be used for that purpose. In the New Testament, the word is used either with a qualifying phrase such as “the gospel” (Mark 16:15), or the contents of the proclamation are given as in Revelation 5:2, or it is used alone without the contents of the message being given as in Romans 10:15. Thus, one cannot say that our Lord preached the gospel to these fallen angels. There is a distinct word used in the Greek New Testament which means “to preach the gospel,” euaggelizomai. In Luke 4:18 we have, “to preach the gospel to the poor,” where the words, “preach the gospel” are the translation of the one word euaggelizomai. The word is made up of aggello “to bring a message,” and eu  “well” or “good,” thus, “a message of good,” thus, “to bring good news.” The word “gospel” means “good news.” But this word is not used here. Our Lord made an official proclamation to these fallen angels. It was not the gospel. Angels are not included among those for whom Christ died. Hebrews 2:16 says, “For verily He took not hold of angels: but He took hold of the seed of Abraham.” In perfect righteousness, God in justice passed by fallen angels, and in infinite mercy, procured for fallen man a salvation at Calvary, purchased by His own precious blood (Acts 20:28). As to a suggestion regarding the possible content of the proclamation, that must await our treatment of the subject concerning the nature of the disobedience of these fallen angels."  

All this is right. However, in his comments on 4: 6 he writes:

"The words “them that are dead,” refer to Christian believers who had died. The gospel had been preached to them and they had become Christians. As a result of this they had been judged according to men while they were on earth. This judgment was in the form of persecution because of their Christian testimony. The word translated “according to” means literally “down,” and speaks of domination. This judgment was in the hands of men and was administered by them."  

Here Wuest seems to argue differently than he did for his comments on 3: 19. Here he takes the view, along with others, that Peter is referring to Christians, especially martyrs, they being "the dead" who had the gospel preached to them (before they died) for the purpose stated by Peter. Such interpreters see the words as equivalent to saying "the gospel was preached to departed believers, before they died, so that though later judged and condemned to die by depraved men, they would nevertheless live to God in spiritual life in heaven." But, that makes no sense. Is that not the reason why the gospel is preached to all, to those who have lived and died and gone to heaven, as well as those who are living still? Is it the same reason why the gospel will be preached in the future to those chosen to salvation? Are we to interpret Peter's words to mean all the same as "for this reason were they saved by the gospel before they died"? 

This view also says that the "judge" who judged the dead ones who heard the gospel preached by Christ are the persecutors and murderers of the righteous. These are identified as "men in the flesh," denoting wicked people who persecute spiritual Christians, particularly in their condemning to death (judging) the ones who had heard and believed the gospel. Wuest said "this judgment was in the form of persecution." But that is not correct. 

First, "in order that" (hina - "that they might be judged") cannot be interpreted as "although they might be judged," which it does not mean. There is a lot of difference between "that they might" and "although." The latter is the term used by those who say that the judges of the text are persecutors. Those who take this view argue these points: 

1) "men in the flesh" are unsaved people who persecute and put to death those who have heard and believed the gospel, and 

2) that the judgment denotes condemnation to death by "men in the flesh," and 

3) that the "dead ones" preached to denotes believers who have died, especially died as martyrs. 

Thus, they see the intent of Peter was to encourage believers with the thought that they will have spiritual and eternal life even when they die, and so therefore there should be no fear of dying as a result of preaching and following Christ. However, how a person can get that out of the words "for this reason was the gospel preached even to those who are dead that they might be judged by men in the flesh..." is bewildering. 

Such an interpretation does not answer the question "why was the gospel preached by Christ to the dead"? In fact, they of such interpretations change the question. Peter is going to give us the reason why the gospel was preached to "the dead," not the reason it is preached to "the living." The above view does not give us the reason. How is the preaching to departed believers (before they died) special and peculiar to them? Is the reason why the living are preached to different? Those of this view read the text this way: "the gospel was preached to our saved departed brothers and sisters so that they, though having been condemned to die, will yet live unto God in spirit." Or, "in order that you might be saved when you die as a martyr, the gospel was preached to you." 

Second, the one who will "judge" the dead ones who heard the gospel preached by Christ in the Underworld (or even who heard it while they were alive for that matter) is the same judge mentioned in the preceding verse where Peter speaks of him "who is ready to judge living and dead." That is Christ and he is the Judge and Lord of the dead, in that character he made announcements to all who were in the Underworld when he descended into the heart of the earth. We will be looking at that aspect of our present subject in an upcoming chapter, that of Christ becoming "lord" of the dead.

I see the text as saying "for this reason was the gospel preached (by Christ as in 3: 19) to dead ones, so that they might be judged by the judge of the living and the dead as being either "men in the flesh" (lost) or as men alive to God in spirit (saved)." I will further explain my reasons for this interpretation as we continue to look at the grammar and syntax of the passage, and consult some Greek translators. 

Wuest continues:

"The words “in the flesh” are to be construed with “might be judged,” for they balance up the words “in the spirit” which clearly are to be understood with “live.” We have here the dative of respect." 

That is true, except he left out the word "men" when he mentions "in the flesh." It is "men in the flesh." We know that "men in the flesh" could be used in more than one sense. It may mean "men who are in their bodies" (or living people, not disembodied spirits). It could denote those who are animalistic and depraved, being used in the sense Paul often used the adjectival phraseology. Notice these words of his:

"For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his." (Rom. 8: 6-9)

Clearly people "in the flesh" (Greek sarx) are people who are controlled by the lusts of the flesh, not being spiritual, not having "the Spirit of Christ." 

I believe Peter is using "men in the flesh" in the same way as Paul. Even those like Wuest who believe the preaching was done to departed believers while they were alive on earth (and not to the dead spirits in Hades), also see these men as lost depraved sinners, for they are the murderers of believers. The question is who is doing the judging (or deciding)? Further, what does it mean for Christ to judge one of the dead (who heard his preaching in Hades) "according to men in the flesh"? That point we will discuss shortly.

Wuest continues:

"These Christians were judged with respect to the flesh, that is, with respect to their earthly existence in the body. The natural result of accepting the gospel would be the living of a Christian life, and the natural result of that would be persecution. But these Christians died, many of them as martyrs. Now, in heaven they were living according to the Word of God with respect to their spirits, their human spirits. They in their disembodied state were serving the Lord in the future life."

But, that is not correct. First, "them who are dead" does not denote "these Christians," these "martyrs," as we have seen. Rather, as we have seen, this interpretation says that the gospel was preached not to dead people, but to living people. Very ironic. Second, the judging is done by the only judge mentioned in the context, which is the one who is "ready to judge living and dead."(4: 5) But, Wuest, and they who share his view, make the judge(s) wicked human beings who kill believers. That is wrong. The error is in not comprehending what is meant by "that they might be judged according to men in the flesh."

Questions

1. Who are the "they" in "that they might be"? Well, obviously it is "them who are dead." 

2. Who is the "judge" of the "they"?

3. What does it mean to be "judged according to men in the flesh"?

4. What does it mean to be "judged according to or as being alive to God in spirit"?

On these points and questions, we will have more to say. We will speak further of the purpose Peter says that Jesus fulfilled in going to the Underworld and preaching there. We will look closer at the grammar and syntax of the passages under investigation and doing that will bring us back to these points. We will continue to do that in the next chapter.