Pre Trib Premillenialists agree with all other Premillenialists that exactly 1000 years separate the first resurrection of the just from the second resurrection of the unjust, as Rev. 20 says. I say they "agree" but do they really? Can they say this and be consistent? No, they cannot. Here is why.
If the rapture comes seven years before the beginning of the Millennium, then the resurrection of the just, or "first resurrection," comes not 1000 years, but 1007 years, before that of the second resurrection. Don't you see? The rapture has to take place at the end of this age, which point in time is also when the Millennium begins. Thus, to put exactly 1000 years between the resurrection of the just and the unjust uproots the pre trib rapture view.
Consider also the fact that Jesus and the scriptures put the resurrection of the righteous "at the last day." But, if it occurs seven years before the last day, as the pre trib view affirms, then it is not the last day.
Consider also the fact that all the righteous are resurrected and raptured at the same time. But, no pre trib advocate affirms this. They affirm that some are saved after the rapture and resurrection, in the seven year tribulation period, and therefore these must undergo a translation and resurrection separate from the others. Thus, they deny that all are resurrected and translated at the same time.
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