Thursday, September 15, 2011
Chpt. 91 - Hardshell Proof Texts XIII
Hardshells, in their attempts to find verses which affirm that there are numerous "heathen" people who are "regenerated," will cite this verse. Clearly the passage is talking about the "heathen," about those who do not know the one true and living God, but who worship "gods many" and "lords many." Do the verses say that such people are nevertheless regenerated, though still pagan idolaters? If the reference to the law being written on the heart is a reference to regeneration, then the Hardshells have some weight to their position.
But, it is clear that the "work of the law" is not the "work of grace," or the work of regeneration. The law being written upon the heart is not regeneration, in this passage, although other passages speak of regeneration as involving such a writing. Paul does not say that the "Gentiles do by grace and regeneration the things contained in the law," but "do by nature," referring not to the divine nature, but to human nature.
Further, Paul does not say this is true of only some heathen Gentiles, which he would say if he had reference to regeneration and to the divine nature. Rather, he says this is true of the Gentiles, as a whole. Thus, if this is a reference to regeneration, then Paul is affirming that all Gentiles, all heathen, are "regenerated." Also, Paul does not say - "the regenerated children of God do by nature..." Rather, he says "the Gentiles do by nature."
All commentators, other than Hardshells, affirm that Paul is referring to man's moral nature, to his God-given conscience, and to the fact that human nature has God's moral laws written in it.
Wrote the old Baptist, John Gill:
"Ver. 14. For when the Gentiles which have not the law,.... The objection of the Gentiles against their condemnation, taken from their being without the law, is here obviated. The apostle owns that they had not the law, that is, the written law of Moses, and yet intimates that they had, and must have a law, against which they sinned, and so deserved punishment, and which they in part obeyed; for these men
do by nature the things contained in the law. The matter and substance of the moral law of Moses agrees with the law and light of nature; and the Gentiles in some measure, and in some sort, did these things by nature; not that men by the mere strength of nature without the grace of God, can fulfil the law, or do anything that is acceptable to God; and indeed, what these men did was merely natural and carnal, and so unacceptable to God. Some understand this of nature assisted by grace, in converted Gentiles, whether before or after the coming of Christ; others expound the phrase, by nature, freely, willingly, in opposition to the servile spirit of the Jews, in their obedience to the law; though it rather seems to design the dictates of natural reason, by which they acted: and so
these having not the law, the written law,
are a law to themselves; which they have by nature and use, and which natural reason dictates to them."
Ver. 15. Which show the work of the law written in their hearts,.... Though the Gentiles had not the law in form, written on tables, or in a book, yet they had "the work", the matter, the sum and substance of it in their minds; as appears by the practices of many of them, in their external conversation. The moral law, in its purity and perfection, was written on the heart of Adam in his first creation; was sadly obliterated by his sin and fall; upon several accounts, and to answer various purposes, a system of laws was written on tables of stone for the use of the Israelites; and in regeneration the law is reinscribed on the hearts of God's people; and even among the Gentiles, and in their hearts, there are some remains of the old law and light of nature, which as by their outward conduct appears, so by the inward motions of their minds."
To interpret Paul's words as a reference to regeneration is to completely ignore the context, for Paul is demonstrating the condemnation of the heathen Gentiles, not their salvation. Paul is not attempting to prove that some of the heathen, though ignorant of the one true and living God, and of the gospel, are nevertheless "regenerated," and the children of God, but just the opposite. He is contrasting the special revelation of the gospel with the general revelation found in nature. That general revelation is present in creation and in nature generally and includes the nature and conscience of men. This general revelation is God's witness and voice to all men in the "conscience."
Gentiles have "sinned," apart from knowledge of the written Mosaic law, and apart from God's revelation and light in scripture, but "sin is not imputed where there is no law" (5: 13), but men "sinned" before there was a written legal moral code, and so, since sin was in fact "imputed" (men died), therefore there was in existence a moral code before the giving of the "law of Moses." The only "law" that all men were under, prior to the written code of Moses, was that law which resides in the "conscience." That law is part of the nature of man. God, when he made the first man, wrote upon his nature and conscience his precepts of right and wrong. Man, though fallen, still has this written upon his nature and conscience, but, his nature and conscience have been over-written by another "law," or "code of conduct," the "law of sin." (Rom. 7: 23)
God's Witness to the Conscience
"And they which heard it, being convicted by their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst." (John 8:9)
Wrote Dr. Henry Morris:
"A conscience can be a reliable guide, however, only if it is a good conscience. The Scriptures on the other hand, speak of some who have a "weak conscience" (I Corinthians 8:7,10,12) which may become a "defiled conscience" (Titus 1:15) and eventually a "seared conscience" (I Timothy 4:2) or even an "evil conscience" (Hebrews 10:22)."
"If used properly, however, the conscience is a blessing. God has given us a conscience to help guide us. The question is, what makes a conscience "good"? There are two references in Scripture to a "pure conscience" (I Timothy 3:9; II Timothy 1:3) and six to a "good conscience" (Acts 23:1; I Timothy 1:5, 19; Hebrews 13:18; I Peter 3:16, 21), but none of these tell how such a conscience is acquired.
The answer to this vital question appears to be found in the apostle Paul's testimony before Felix: "And herein do I exercise myself, to have always a conscience void of offense toward God, and toward men" (Acts 24:16). The "exercise" (literally "training") which had produced such a conscience in Paul, he said, was this: "So worship I the God of my fathers, believing all things which are written in the law and in the prophets" (Acts 24:14). A lifelong study of the Scriptures, accompanied by absolute faith in their veracity and authority, had produced in Paul a strong, pure, good, reliable conscience, and it will do the same for us." ("The Witness Of Conscience" by Henry Morris, Ph.D.)
http://www.icr.org/article/witness-conscience/
"And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years." (Gen. 6: 3)
How does God's Spirit "strive with man," with all men? Is it not by the convictions and admonitions of conscience? When a man commits an immoral act, and feels guilty for it, is that not a witness of conscience and the way in which God convicts all men of sin? Will the Hardshells deny that the witness of conscience regarding immoral acts is the "work of the law," the Spirit's "striving" with men? Will they affirm that all who experience conviction for an immoral act are "regenerated"? And, they wonder why they have had serious difficulties with the heresy of "universal salvation."
Friday, January 17, 2020
More Theological Nonsense From Loudermilk
"Romans 2:14-15, For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)…”
It would be difficult, to say the least, for all of us who live in the year 2020 and are members of the New Testament Church of the Lord Jesus Christ to imagine a time when the Gentiles lived in darkness without the knowledge of the information of God. But there was such a time when the nations of the world did not have, or have access to the oracles and commandments of the Lord as the Jews. Paul, In Romans 3:1-2 teaches us that one of the advantages of the Jews (national Israel) was that “unto them were committed the oracles of God.” Yet, according to Paul in our study verses, the Lord had a people among the Gentiles who were born again. When we read, “the work of the law written in their hearts”, it is referring to the finger of God writing His laws on their hearts in Regeneration, or the New Birth. In 2 Corinthians 3:3 we read, “Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.” In this verse the Apostle Paul is referring to the same. When the elect child of God is born again, the Holy Spirit writes the Laws of God on the new heart which is given to them by His direct life giving work. You may ask, I wonder if this has happened to me? If you feel guilty for your sins and the wrong doings of your life, it is good evidence that this efficacious work has been accomplished in you by God’s grace (2 Timothy 1:9). The Gentiles in our study verse manifested that this work had been done to them before they received the information of God’s commandments, “having not the law…”
When we consider these two verses in God’s Holy Word, we are able to come to a few theological conclusions. (1) God has had, and does have a people in every kindred, tongue, people and nation (Revelation 5:9), not just where the gospel is or has been preached. (2) God’s eternal grace and salvation is without the knowledge and information of God’s word, or the gospel. (3) Those who are eternally saved are able to show forth the work of salvation without the knowledge and information of the word of God, or the gospel. (4) The knowledge and information of God’s word is for them who are already born again, to teach them that they may be comforted in the salvation they have and be informed of a better way to love to please the One Who saved them by His grace. And so, finally, we are able to conclude that life precedes believing the information of life. Amen!"
I answered this nonsense on this text in this posting here. I dare say that such a misinterpretation of this passage is cultic and a clear example of twisting the scriptures. Those who are guilty of such will reap destruction. (II Peter 3:16) It is cult teaching because it is new and novel. Loudermilk and his brothers who share his view cannot find where anyone, including his own Baptist forefathers, who taught this nonsense regarding this passage. They certainly would not say that worshipers of other gods show evidence of having been "born again"!
There is so much contradiction in these words of Loudermilk. Perhaps Loudermilk will want to come here to this blog and discuss his interpretation? Perhaps some at Union Grove would like to hear a discussion of this most important issue?
The view of Loudermilk on the above passage leads him right into Universalism! I wonder, does Loudermilk believe that any go to Hell? Has he ever preached on Hell? Have sinners ever been awakened to their danger by his preaching on it?
Wednesday, March 5, 2014
Hermeneutical Problems VI (conclusion)
An Epistemology Debate?
The word "instinct" means "an inborn pattern of activity or tendency to action common to a given biological species." Of course, instinctive knowledge is neither rational nor actively acquired. Rather, it is passively received, unlearned, acquired in birth, coded somehow into the physical nature.
In the Scriptures this is called "brutish knowledge" ("become brutish in their knowledge" - Jer. 10: 14). There are things that animals instinctively know. Peter spoke of "brute beasts" and of "what they know naturally." (II Peter 2: 12) "Know naturally," that is, know inwardly and intuitively. Thus, the Scriptures do acknowledge some kind of innate knowledge. There is also, of course, other knowledge that animals acquire by mimicking behavior, a kind of learning. For example, in Scripture, an animal is said to "know" his owner and his stall. (Isa. 1: 3) This knowledge was not natural, instinctive, or unlearned. Man is animal and he also has inner instincts, the effect of innate knowledge.
Of course, animals do not have rational minds, nor consciences, nor understanding of moral laws, as does man. Animals do not have spirits, or ability to have intercourse with and enjoyment of God. Man as a physical being, or animal, has innate knowledge, as other animals, but he also has an inner knowledge of right and wrong that is part of his moral or spiritual nature.
Some philosophers, like Locke, believed that a person was born with a "blank slate", or tabula rasa (Latin), for a soul. These denied that man was born with any innate knowledge, arguing rather that all human knowledge is acquired from experience and sensory perception. This has not been the general belief of Christians, however. It is against what Paul wrote in Romans 2: 14-15)
"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another."
Is conscience acquired at birth? This question is a related question to that which asks whether man has knowledge in his nature or subconscious mind at birth. Or, we may ask, is one born with a superego? Or, is the superego something that comes later into existence? If we define "conscience" as the capacity or faculty for making moral choices, then yes, all men are born with a conscience. However, if we define conscience as cognitive knowledge of right and wrong, as that which is written into the conscience by life learning, then the conscience is something that is in continuous construction during life.
The words of the apostle, in the above passage, seem to clearly teach that man has a natural knowledge of wrongdoing. Yet, we also read where Moses spoke of "your little ones" and said that as such they had "no knowledge between good and evil" (Deut. 1: 39) If they had "no knowledge" of good and evil, as newborns, then how can it be asserted that they had such knowledge innately?
On this passage Dr. Gill wrote:
"Though the Gentiles had not the law in form, written on tables, or in a book, yet they had "the work", the matter, the sum and substance of it in their minds; as appears by the practices of many of them, in their external conversation. The moral law, in its purity and perfection, was written on the heart of Adam in his first creation; was sadly obliterated by his sin and fall; upon several accounts, and to answer various purposes, a system of laws was written on tables of stone for the use of the Israelites; and in regeneration the law is re inscribed on the hearts of God's people." (Commentary)
Clearly, when Moses said that babies do not have any knowledge of right and wrong, he means they do not have any conscious or rational knowledge of such. This can only be acquired by learning.
It is true, as Gill says, that the original writing of God's law into the nature of man has been "sadly obliterated," or we may say "over written" by another writing. The law of sin was written over the first writing, greatly obscuring it. Both writings manifest themselves in moral choices.
This concluding essay is not intended to be chiefly on this epistemological debate, but was only introduced because of the Hardshell argument that God's word is written into the new nature of the regenerated in the same way in which the law is written into the nature of man, that is, in both cases, there is no conscious knowledge connected with this writing.
It is not important to debate the merits of the Socratic method, which affirms that all knowledge that a man may acquire in life was already present in the man, and "learning" a thing was not strictly "cognition" but "recognition." In such an epistemological scheme knowledge is simply "brought out" of a person rather than put within the person. All knowledge is anamnesis, or remembrance, a person merely rediscovers innately possessed knowledge.
This is exactly the kind of belief that the Hardshells have in regard to that spiritual knowledge that God promises to give to sinners in their regeneration. Thus, they will say that when a person is regenerated, he then knows instinctively the good news, yet not consciously. And, when that person hears the good news, he knows it instinctively, or remembers and recognizes it as truth. The word presented to the conscious mind agrees with the the word written in the subconscious mind. Of course, today's Hardshells will generally say that this is not so in every case.
This has been a paradigm of many Hardshells throughout the years, though it is not often explained so thoughtfully as I have in this posting. Many simply say things as did Elder Holder, saying that every born again person has had the word of God written into his heart and soul, even in those who have no conscious knowledge of it, such as pagans. The problem with this view is to explain why today's Hardshells are against affirming that all the elect who hear the Gospel will believe and obey it.
Further, I do not deny that there is some truth in all this, and there is such a thing as Christian intuition, an ability to sense when something is dangerous or a lie.
What I deny is the Hardshell attempt to deny God's use of means in fulfilling his promise to write his word into the heart and mind and their attempt to deny that the knowledge produced by this divine writing is cognitive.
Remember that it was Paul who said "how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?" Paul did not believe that there were people who knew about Jesus apart from being informed about who Jesus is. Further, the prophecies themselves show that the word written is written into the conscious mind.
Further, Paul often pointed to people and said of them that they did not know God. But, if the Hardshell view of how saving knowledge is communicated to the soul is correct, Paul could not be sure that the heathen people he referred to did not know God.
Further, why would the Lord advise his people to write his word upon their hearts if it is already all written there? Hardshells sing the song "Tell Me The Story Of Jesus," and there is a prayer in that song that asks God to "write upon my heart every word." From this we may gather that the Hardshells agree that this work of God in writing upon the heart and mind is not a one time instantaneous work, but continuous throughout the life of the believer, and one often accomplished by the means of Gospel instruction.
The Hardshell view makes it possible to say of a Hindu worshipper who worships gods and lords many, that he both knows and does not know God, all at the same time, which just throws out the window the law of non-contradiction.
Friday, April 18, 2025
Divine Justice Issues (XXVII)
Sunday, August 31, 2014
Oliphant vs. Pence
Oliphant begins (emphasis mine):
"I received a clipping from a recent number of Elder Pence's paper, in which he criticizes an article from me in a recent number of the Primitive Baptist. I will write concerning the matter again...Many have held, as Elder Pence, seems to hold, that there can be no salvation where there is no bible. I think the Missionaries usually make this plea."
The idea that there are heathen who have been born again, saved, and justified, although they have no faith in the Hebrew God or in Christ and his atonement, is a novel view, one that was not believed by Baptists until the "rise of the Hardshells" in the 19th century. For instance, the London Confession is clear on this point, denying that any are saved who die without Gospel knowledge and faith. Dr. Gill also, in his Body of Divinity, affirms the same. Further, it was not even the view of the first generation of Hardshells, being a novelty of second and third generation Hardshells.
Besides being novel, it is also entirely heterodox, against the plain teachings of the Scriptures, as Elder Pence was asserting.
When Olipant denies that there can be any salvation apart from the Bible, he is really asserting that salvation exists where there is no knowledge of the Bible's revelation concerning God and Christ. This idea is so clearly against the Scriptures that one wonders how and why this novel idea gained a following. Does Oliphant have any Scriptures that affirm the salvation of heathen who die without faith in the God of the Bible and of his way of salvation through Christ? No, he does not, as we shall see.
Today's Hardshells have also been challenged to give the Scriptural proof for their novel idea, and to explain how they interpret the numerous verses that teach the absolute necessity of Christian enlightened (experience revelation) for faith and salvation. All Oliphant and the Hardshells can do is to offer inferences and logical deductions in proof of their hybrid teaching. They can give no clear cut, straight forward, passages which assert their proposition, so they rely on their own human reasonings, as I have often pointed out before. (For instance, see here)
Oliphant continued:
"Paul said, "In him we live and move and have our being," and then showed that their own poets had said as much, "For we are also his offspring." Paul quoted from the heathen words of instruction for Christianity. Paul spoke of their inscription "To the unknown God, whom therefore ye ignorantly worship." He recognized a spirit of devotion among them, something commendable, and quoted from their author words of wisdom. There are some texts that indicate that heathen nations are interested in salvation. "In thee shall all the families of the earth be blest." And all the nations of the earth shall be blest in him." "And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blest." Here is a blessing for "all the nations" and "all the families of the earth." But how can this be if "seven tenths of the nation are swept away without one ray of light among them?" "For thou wast slain and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred and tongue and people under heaven." How could this be if the work on grace is wholly excluded from seven-tenths of the nations of the earth? or if it be restricted to those who have bible advantages?"
John saw a great multitude that no man can number "of all kindreds and people and tongues who stood before the throne and before the lamb clothed in white robes," etc."
Such statements as this better agree with the idea that God's method of salvation is not limited to human efforts, especially when we remembered that only about one fourth of the race has ever been favored with Bible advantages."
Notice how none of the passages cited and alluded to assert prima facie the proposition of Oliphant. None of those verses affirm that anyone who dies without faith is saved. Oliphant thinks that making faith necessary for salvation is inconsistent with wholesale heathen damnation. He is relying on his own presuppositions and logical deductions rather than upon the plain express statements of Scripture. Ironically, though he relies upon logical deduction to sustain his doctrine, his logic is seriously flawed. His analysis is a good example of eisegesis rather than exegesis. He brings propositions and premises into the discussion without first proving their source in Scripture.
Notice how Oliphant says "but how can this be?" and how such and such a fact "better agrees with" another supposed fact. Is he not "leaning upon his own understanding," a thing forbidden in Scripture? (Prov. 3: 5) No fundamental doctrine of Scripture is to be based upon mere inferences and deductions, but upon the clearest and plainest statements of Scripture. Oliphant not only shows his hermeneutical flaws in this way, but he also shows it by the fact that he allows his presuppositions to control his handling of the word of God. In other words, if a passage of Scripture seems to teach contrary to the Hardshell premise that says "God uses no human means in the eternal salvation of sinners," then that verse will then be twisted in such a way as to harmonize with their premise.
Oliphant offers this syllogistic logic to prove the salvation of heathen idolaters.
1. The pagans had a "spirit of devotion," or were devout and religious.
2. A "spirit of devotion" is evidence of regeneration.
3. The pagans were regenerated.
Of course, what is wrong with this logic is the fact that premise #2 is false. Jesus certainly did not believe that such was an evidence of salvation, but of damnation. Likewise, the apostles did not view heathen religious devotion as proof of regeneration. By this logic the Hardshells would have all, except atheists, to be regenerated and heirs of eternal life. Is this not quasi universalism?
Actually, though the Bible teaches the elect "few," and the reprobate "many," the Hardshells reverse this and say that the "few" are the reprobate and the "many" are the elect.
Oliphant also offers this syllogism:
1. The pagans believed that humans were created by divinity or divinities.
2. Believing this is proof of regeneration.
3. The pagans who believed this are regenerated.
Again, where is Oliphant's Scriptural support for premise (presupposition) #2? Just because Paul cites a heathen writer to show agreement on a theological point does not equate with his affirming the salvation of the one being cited. That idea is ludicrous.
The idea that the Athenian polytheists were already born again before they heard the Gospel is a view that late 19th century Hardshells adopted to uphold their idea of "regenerated heathen." Oliphant argues that since the heathen were religious, believed in divine beings, and in some things in common with Hebrews and Christians, therefore they must be born again. But, no where in Scripture are such things put forth as evidence of salvation.
In my book I cited from Hardshell apologist Sarrels who, like Oliphant, attempted to find evidences of regeneration in the heathen. He thought that any good person was regenerated since "goodness" is a fruit of the Spirit. (Gal. 5: 22) The person will not have any faith, for "faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God" (Rom. 10: 17), but according to Oliphant, Cayce, Sarrels, Waters, Dalton, Daily, and other late 19th century Hardshell leaders, faith is not essential to salvation. In fact, Elder Waters uttered the new Hardshell banner in 1890 with these words - "Every regenerate child of Adam is saved eternally, faith or no faith." Though this is what is now believed by today's Hardshells, it is not the teaching of the Old Baptists nor of the Scriptures, but is an invention of men, that which helps identify them as a cult.
Because Paul cites some things from the heathen writers, therefore he must have viewed them as regenerated and saved? That is very poor reasoning. Paul and the Biblical writers also cite from Satan and demons. According to the reasoning of Oliphant, that must mean that they are regenerated children of God!
Oliphant continued:
"There was no Bible, not even the ten commandments or the golden rule, for the first fifteen hundred years of the world, and yet we read of men and women that knew God, the true God, and the right worship. Josephus tells us that Abraham argued from the vastness of creation and the beauty and order of it that there is but one God. Tillotson argued, I think rightly, that we learn of the being of God from the works of his hands, and "There is no speech nor language where their voice is not heard." Jacob and all the Patriarchs had lived and died before the first line of the Bible was written. Enoch had walked with God; Noah had built the ark, and Abel had made acceptable sacrifice to God without the aid of the Bible. All these are referred to in the New Testament as the true servants of God. Though Abraham was surrounded with error in the midst of the Chaldees yet he knew the true God and obeyed him and became the father of the faithful in all ages, and all this without a Bible or a preacher. Job lived before Abraham in the land of Uz, supposed to be Arabia. He knew the true God and the true worship with none of the advantages Elder Pence seems to think indispensable to the knowledge and worship of God."
First of all, we notice again how Oliphant, in typical Hardshell fashion, tries to slip in a proposition that he assumes to be true, with the supposition that it will be accepted without questioning. But, those "skilled in the word of righteousness" will not be so accepting. Oliphant's false premise says that there "was no Bible," no word of God, "for the first fifteen hundred years of the world." That is a gross falsehood. The word of God, yea, even the Gospel, was in existence during those fifteen hundred years.
Oliphant affirms that the ancient believers, such as Abel, Enoch, Noah, and the Patriarchs, "knew God, the true God, and the right worship" and yet had no word of God! Is that not preposterous?
It is true that the first part of the Bible was formally written by Moses, but to assume that what Moses wrote was entirely new revelation is an error. Oliphant admits that what Moses believed is what Abraham believed. Further, what Abraham believed was what the first family believed, what the first prophets taught. Luke says that "His holy prophets...have been since the world began." (Luke 1: 70) Did the ancient antediluvian believers not have any word of God? Did they not have the promise of the Redeemer who would be wounded by the serpent's seed and would crush the head of the serpent? Does not ancient Mazzaroth show that the ancients had great knowledge of the true nature of God and of the coming Messiah?
Does Oliphant not know that oral revelation was in existence before Moses wrote the Pentateuch? That the word of God existed in the minds of men and communicated orally? Does Oliphant not know that there was revelation before it was written down? Does he not know that when it is said that Abel had "faith," that this presupposes knowledge of the truth believed?
We are told by Jude that Enoch, "the seventh from Adam," prophesied of the coming of the Lord. Did he not get this knowledge by the word of God? The truth is, the ancients had the gist of the Bible existent in their hearts and understandings.
Oliphant thinks that the fact that a vast host is finally redeemed is logically inconsistent with the idea that only those who hear the word of God are saved. But, again, why base one's doctrine on such imagined reasonings rather than upon what is clearly stated in Scripture? Those of us who believe that God saves through the means of the word and revelation of God have no problem seeing men of all nations in heaven.
Oliphant continued:
"After Moses' time centuries passed with but a small part of the Bible written as we now have it. Christ was known in it only in types and shadows. Forty centuries went by, and all that train of nations had been swept away before a line of the New Testament was written. Yet we see a succession of the true worshippers from Abel to the coming of Christ. "All thy children shall be taught of God," and God found a way to teach and make himself and his will known to the children of men in the various nations of earth throughout all those centuries."
So, what is Oliphant saying? He is not denying that the ancient believers, before the written Bible, had been taught divine truth, but he denies that this divine teaching was by means of indirect communication. His argument, if valid, rather than proving that men were saved apart from faith in divine revelation, would prove merely that they were saved by God directly speaking the word to ancient believers and not by prophets or communicators of the word. It seems to me that such a view ignores the plain facts of history as revealed in Scripture, which affirm that sufficient revelation has existed from the beginning to bring men to know God and his way of salvation through a mediator.
Oliphant actually contradicts himself. In one breath, he wants to say that there was no Bible, or no revelation of religious or theological truth, prior to Moses, and yet in another breath asserts that people prior to Moses knew religious truth. If his point is to prove that men are saved who knew not God, he has miserably failed.
Oliphant wants us to believe that the manner in which God teaches all his children is by direct revelation, making all God's people into mystics, into prophets and apostles.
Also, consider that all the examples Oliphant offers of people who were supposedly "heathen," and who were nevertheless in favor with God, and born of his Spirit, were in fact, by his own admission, not "heathen" by definition, for they believed in the one true God and were "true worshippers."
Oliphant says that "God found a way to teach and make himself known" in those times before we had a formal written revelation. But, does he believe that those who have experienced this revelation are still by definition heathen, pagans, and polytheists? According to Oliphant, God can make himself known in regeneration and enlightenment in some "way" and manner, but this "way" cannot possibly be by means of prophets and communicaters of the word.
Oliphant wrote:
"How much of the Bible is indispensable to salvation? Twenty-five hundred years went by before one line of it was written, and near three thousand years were gone before one half the Old Testament was written, and four thousand years were gone before one line of the New Testament was written. These are all important facts as I see the subject. God's mercy was applied to multitudes before a line of the Bible was written. The redeemed shall come from every kindred tongue, and nation under heaven--a multitude that no man can number of all the families of the earth."
Oliphant gives the same rhetorical response as other Hardshells when he queries - "how much of the Bible is indispensable to salvation"? His purpose in asking this question is so that he can whittle down the amount of truth necessary to be believed in order to be classified as regenerate. He wants to whittle it down so as to exclude knowing the one true God, and so as to include polytheists.
Oliphant then says:
"Abraham knew of Christ and all the ancient worthies saw Christ by faith."
But, according to Paul, one must first hear the word about Christ in order to believe in him. (Rom. 10: 14-17) Also, this shows that there was revelation about Christ before Moses penned the first Scriptures.
Oliphant wrote:
"When the gentiles, which have no law, do by nature the things contained in the law, it shows the work of the law written in their hearts.” Paul believed there were Gentiles that had the work of the law written in their hearts, which is the new covenant of grace. Rom. ii. 8, 9 teach the same."
Romans 2: 8-9 does not teach that the heathen, while in heathendom, are regenerated. This is a novel interpretation of this passage. This passage was seized upon because it was judged as being one passage that at least comes close to asserting the regeneration of heathen and polytheists. I have previously destroyed this interpretation (see here) Notice that the passage does not say "which show the work of GRACE (or salvation) written in their hearts," but the "work of the LAW." Paul is not affirming that the heathen have a regenerated nature, but a moral nature, a conscience.
Oliphant wrote:
"When Peter went to the house of Cornelius he said, “I perceive of a truth that God is no respecter of persons, but in every nation he that feareth him and worketh righteousness is accepted with him.” Peter learned that God’s mercy was operative in “every nation.” “He that feareth him and worketh righteousness;” such people are in every nation and “are accepted with him.”
Cornelius was not saved apart from hearing and believing the Gospel. He heard and he believed. To argue that he was saved before he became a believer is to affirm that men can be regenerate while unbelievers. But, the Scriptures know nothing of regenerated unbelievers.
Further, since "without faith it is impossible to please God" (Heb. 11: 6), how can Oliphant affirm that heathen people were pleasing God (working righteousness) apart from faith? Further, how can one "fear" him whom he knows nothing about?
Oliphant wrote:
"If all the good and pure is in Christendom it is little enough. But I am persuaded that a little of the good is in other nations. There are some who fear God and work righteousness, and they are accepted with him. There are some who “call upon the name of the Lord,” and there is a promise to them, Acts x. 1-4, also Acts ii. 21-3; Joel ii. 2. These have ever been my views. They are scriptural, as I understand the Bible."
So, like Sarrels, Oliphant argues that since heathen people do good things, therefore they must be born again! Oh wonderful logic!
Also, Oliphant again identifies the heathen, the ones who have not heard the Gospel or read a Bible, as people who "fear God and work righteousness," and who are "accepted with him." They even "call upon the Lord" though they do not know the Lord and continue to believe in false gods! Anyone who is not blinded by Hyper Calvinism and cult thinking can see how perverted is such reasoning and handling of the word of God.
Thursday, November 11, 2021
Justification Unto Life & Regeneration IV
Saturday, December 4, 2021
Regeneration In Romans
Where is regeneration mentioned in the book of Romans according to our Hardshell brothers? Where is it alluded to? Some say it is referred to in Romans 2: 14-15.
"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another."
Though our Hardshell brethren cite this verse in an attempt to show that the heathen, who are ignorant of true religion and without faith, are regenerated, yet this is not talking about regeneration. On this I have written concerning in previous postings. (See this posting here) The text is speaking not about the work of grace but "the work of the law" and has reference to the human conscience and its realization of right and wrong.
"For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God." (29-30)
The reference to being a Jew inwardly and being circumcised in the heart is what is effected in regeneration. So, there is a reference to that work in these words. On spiritual circumcision I have also written. (See here and here) In those postings I show how faith is required in this circumcision. There is nothing in the context of the above verses to make one think that he becomes a spiritual Jew and is circumcised in heart apart from being made a believer by the Spirit through the power of the gospel. It is hard to conceive an unbeliever having a circumcised heart as our Hardshell brothers imagine.
Why is this circumcision not connected with evangelical conversion? How is the creation of faith and repentance excluded from this circumcision? What is "cut away" and discarded by spiritual circumcision? Is it not unbelief and impenitence? It is hard to conceive of a spiritual Jew who is a stranger to the religion of the bible, yet our Hardshell brothers have not this difficulty. Is it not because they have changed the nature of regeneration by divorcing it from conversion, from faith and repentance? When Paul says "we are the circumcision" he means "we believers." (Phil. 3: 3) Unbelievers are not circumcised.
Romans 3 declares our death and guilt, our need of righteousness and justification and declares that such comes from Christ by faith. The chapter affirms that justification, righteousness, propitiation, and redemption are by faith. Though regeneration is not specifically mentioned, it can hardly be divorced from the above things. If all the above things be by faith, then why would regeneration be excluded?
Romans 4 affirms that the blessedness of sins forgiven comes by faith, along with imputation of the righteousness of Christ and justification from guilt; And, since this precedes regeneration (as the apostle will show in the next chapter), regeneration follows faith for regeneration follows justification.
Romans 5 speaks of death that results from condemnation and of life that results from justification. By faith the believer is justified, reconciled to God, and experiences peace with God. There is mention of "receiving abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness" by faith. How could regeneration or conversion be excluded from that description? It is certainly not excluded from obtaining "life" as a result of having been justified by faith. So, there is a reference to obtaining spiritual life (regeneration) and this is said to follow justification by faith. "Receiving" is in the active voice and denotes an accepting of the gift of grace and the gift of righteousness. We receive life by faith.
Romans 6 speaks of identification with Christ, symbolized in water baptism, wherein the believer, being joined to Christ, dies to sin (first in justification and secondly in sanctification), and is resurrected to new life. As he was buried in water, so his sins and old self are buried. As Christ was raised to life so the believer is raised to life. This identification with Christ is by faith. To become dead to sin and alive to God one must become identified with and related to Christ by faith, to become one in union with him, so that his death, burial, and resurrection are imputed to him and operates to bring about his own death and resurrection.
Paul says to the believers in Rome: "but yield yourselves unto God, as those that are alive from the dead." (vs. 13) Being "alive from the dead" is a clear reference to regeneration. But, is it a regeneration that does not include conversion? That does not begin with faith and repentance? Paul says that they should reckon themselves as spiritually alive. But how and when alive? By what means? The context clearly says that it results from identification with Christ by faith, and thereby have union with him in his death, burial, and resurrection. Further, Paul, when he speaks of the believer's quickening or regeneration, he speaks of it 1) in conversion language, and 2) as occurring at a time known to the believers. The latter fact shows that it is not a sub conscious change but a conscious one.
Now let us notice what he says further in this chapter about regeneration.
"Know you not, that to whom you yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants you are to whom you obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness? But God be thanked, that you were the servants of sin, but you have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you. Being then made free from sin, you became the servants of righteousness." (Vs. 16-18)
That this is talking about evangelical conversion to Christ there is no doubt. But, if regeneration does not encompass conversion, then it is not talking about regeneration. But, there are all kinds of problems with not seeing Paul's description as denoting that conversion is regeneration.
Becoming servants of righteousness follows obeying (believing and repenting) the "doctrine" (the gospel). Prior to believing and turning to God (repentance) one is a "servant of sin" and not a "servant of righteousness." But, if he is regenerated before obeying the gospel (before faith and conversion), then his regeneration did not save him from slavery to sin; And, in that case, we create a strange creature indeed, one who is "regenerate," but who has not yet obeyed the gospel to become "free from sin." A regenerate man who is still a servant of sin, self, the world, Satan, etc.! How can we not see how being made free from sin is a reference to regeneration? Did Paul teach that people were regenerated before or without becoming servants of Christ? No. Are there regenerated people who are servants of sin? No. Who are not servants of God and righteousness? No. Yet, our Hardshell brothers believe so.
Paul said further in this chapter: "For when you were the servants of sin, you were free from righteousness." (vs. 20) Paul speaks to the Roman believers, in the above words, with the assumption that they each knew when they were servants of sin and when they were free from righteousness. This leads to the conclusion that he is referring to the time when the believer first came to believe in Christ and the gospel.
Romans 7 again talks of justification and shows that it results from union with Christ (under the figure of the marriage union). In verse four he speaks of becoming "married to Christ." When does this occur? Obviously in conversion, which is regeneration. Union with Christ is by faith. It speaks of that time when the Lord makes covenant with the believing and penitent sinner. Christ says "I do" (or "I will") and the penitent believer says the same. Then, "the two become one." Paul affirms throughout his epistles that all the benefits of redemption follow union with Christ and union is by faith (a faith divinely created). Justification and regeneration follow faith union. The benefits of marital union come after the covenant is made based upon faith (fealty and trust).
In the same chapter Paul says:
"For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter." (vs 5-6)
What time is denoted by "when we were in the flesh"? Is it not to a pre conversion time, the time before they became servants of righteousness by faith? When were they dead? Was it not before they believed and were converted? He is describing regeneration yes, but in terms of conversion, which shows, in Paul's mind, they were the same. They were also what the Roman believers understood by a reference to their time "in the flesh," the time when they lacked faith and knowledge of Christ, before they were converted.
Romans 8
"There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death." (vs 1-2)
In Paul's writings "in Christ" is a term denoting union between Christ and the believer. But, those who believe that one is born again before they believe believe that one is "in Christ" apart from faith. They often will speak of faith union, but then turn around and put union before faith.
In the New Testament the phrase "eis auton" (unto him) is used frequently. We believe "unto Christ."
"And this is the will of Him that sent Me, that every one which seeth the Son, and is believing on him (eis-unto him), may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day." (John 6:40)
"Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye may be believing on him (eis-unto him) whom He hath sent." (John 6:29)
"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that is believing on (eis, unto) Me is having everlasting life. I am that bread of life." (John 6:47-48)
Everything the Christian does, in obedience to Christ, from the first moment of his birth into new spiritual life in Christ, until his final breath on earth, is "UNTO (eis) Christ," and "UNTO (eis) salvation," and "UNTO (eis) forgiveness (pardon)," and "UNTO (eis) sanctification," and "UNTO (eis) justification (righteousness)," and "UNTO (eis) redemption," and "UNTO (eis) adoption," etc. Thus, when we believe the gospel, we believe "eis" Christ, and "eis salvation," and "eis righteousness," and "eis forgiveness," etc. Likewise, when we repent, and are baptized, and eat the Lord's Supper, and do good works, it is all "eis," or "concerning" Christ and salvation. As these acts are often continuous, so all our spiritual activity is continuously "eis..." But, "eis" often also means "into" and is often so translated. So, we believe "into Christ." Before faith we were outside of Christ. After faith we are "in Christ."
Those who are "in Christ" are the same ones who have Christ in them. It is "I in you and you in me."
In the previous chapter we have seen how Paul speaks of union with Christ through the metaphor of the marriage union. It is when the marriage is consummated that the believer and Christ become one so that the believer is "in Christ" and Christ is in the believer. Christ entering the believer is symbolized in partaking of the bread and wine of the Supper. The believer entering Christ is symbolized in water baptism.
Not only is the believer "in Christ" but he is also "in the Spirit," no longer being "in the flesh."
Further, faith is implied in Paul's words. Those who are free from condemnation are they who "walk after the Spirit." But, how is this possible apart from faith? Did the apostle not say "without faith it is impossible to please God"? (Heb. 11: 6) Obviously then "those who are in Christ Jesus" are they who have faith.
Paul says further in this chapter:
"So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness." (vs 8-10)
There is no doubt that regeneration is alluded to in this passage. It is connected with becoming "in the Spirit," and that is defined as having "the Spirit of God dwell in you." To be "in the Spirit" is to "have" or possess "the Spirit of Christ." How does one who is in the flesh become no longer such? To become "in the Spirit"? If it is not by faith, then we must conclude that unbelievers may have the Spirit and be in the Spirit. But, Paul always taught that both Christ and the Spirit were received by faith. It is when Christ enters into the believer that the believer's own "spirit" is quickened ("is life"). Wrote Paul to the Galatian believers:
"This only I want to learn from you: Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?" (3: 2)
If we receive the Spirit by faith (that comes by hearing the word - Rom. 10: 14-17), and it is the receiving of the Spirit that constitutes one as being "in Christ" and "in the Spirit," then regeneration is by faith.
Some of the born again before faith advocates will attempt to teach their view from the above words based upon what they perceive to be a logical deduction. If while being "in the flesh" (unregenerate) the sinner exercises faith, it is argued, his faith could not be pleasing to God. Or, to state the argument another way, it is argued that one must be "in the Spirit" before he can believe. But, this is not logically deducible from the text. It certainly contradicts what he said in Galatians 3: 2 as we have seen.
What Paul is clearly saying is that it by "having the Spirit" by faith that one becomes "in the Spirit," and "in Christ," and so walks not after the flesh, and is in fact no longer "in the flesh." Those in the flesh "cannot please God." Yes, but the same thing is said about faith. "Without faith it is impossible to please God." (Heb. 11: 6). It seems clear that these two things are linked together and are inseparable. Faith possesses Christ, possesses the Spirit, and thereby is no longer in the flesh but in the Spirit. As long as a man is an unbeliever, as long as he has not received Christ, he is in the flesh. The moment he embraces Christ he receives life and begins his moral and spiritual transformation.
Finally, in Romans chapter eight Paul says:
"Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified." (vs. 30)
On this text, in regard to the ordo salutis, I have already written much. Hardshells, like many others, believe that the "calling" of this text is the same as being regenerated, born again, or quickened. I do not. But, as far as the purpose of this posting is concerned, we want to address it on the assumption that it is the same thing and to see if it excludes faith, excludes the necessity of hearing the gospel, excludes conversion. That it absolutely implies faith there can be no doubt. In fact it is a calling to faith in Christ. Being such, a man cannot be said to be called who does not have faith in Christ.
This calling is of the Spirit but it is "by the gospel," and by faith in it. Wrote Paul:
"But we are bound to give thanks to God always for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God from the beginning chose you for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth, to which He called you by our gospel, for the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ." (II Thess. 2: 13-14)
The parallel between this passage and Romans 8: 29-30 is apparent. Both deal with being chosen and predestined to salvation. Both speak of being "called." The same salvation is under consideration in both passages. This salvation to which they have been chosen and predestined is "by" a "belief (Greek - faith) of the truth," and the salvation calling was made "by our gospel." Those called are they who have heard the call in the gospel and have positively answered it in faith. So, the gospel as a means and faith as an instrument are not excluded. Those who do not believe the gospel were not effectually called.
Romans 9 has no reference to conversion or to regeneration.
Romans 10 speaks of being saved. This is conversion. It affirms that one must have faith, confess Christ and call upon his name, in order to be saved. In order to produce this saving faith the gospel is sent to men for "faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God."
There is no reason to exclude regeneration from the salvation of this chapter. It is not a salvation for the regenerated. But, this is exactly what the born again before faith view affirms. But, again, we cannot imagine a "regenerate" man who has not heard, believed, received, confessed, etc. To exclude these things from what constitutes a regenerate character is to produce a strange creature of which the bible knows nothing. Such a creature only exists in the minds of those who believe regeneration exists where there is no faith.
The remainder of Romans does not speak of either regeneration or conversion, although the apostle speaks of two of his kin who he says "were in Christ before I." (Rom. 16: 7) It is obvious from that statement that Paul knew both when he first was "in Christ" and when Andronicus and Junia were "in Christ." If one gets into Christ on a sub conscious level, apart from faith and conversion, then it cannot be known when one is "in Christ." Doubtless the apostle is referring to that time when he, Andronicus, and Junia became believers. Most of those who teach this kind of regeneration will say that it is not possible to know when this occurs (which is not what they say, however, about being converted). In fact, they actually teach that most are regenerated who do not even know it. But, Paul knew when he and his kin became "in Christ."
So, in conclusion, I ask my Hardshell brothers to show me where in Romans Paul teaches the kind of regeneration they talk about, to show me where regeneration is divorced from conversion, where it occurs apart from faith. If there is a passage I overlooked, let me know.
Friday, February 21, 2014
Hermeneutical Problems for Hardshells VI
A Truth Proposition
It is indeed a truth taught clearly in Scripture that God, in that work called "regeneration" or being "born again," writes upon, or puts within man's inner being his word, law, statutes, etc., but chiefly the Gospel.
For Holder and the Hardshells to affirm this proposition is good, and is a place to "take the battle to the gate," (Isa. 28: 6) for as we will see, such an affirmation is inconsistent with their other statements on the nature of the new birth experience. It represents a point of discussion that, when pressed, ought to convict every Hardshell of his error on the nature of regeneration. Keep in mind also, that the error the Hardshells have regarding the nature of regeneration is a result of another error regarding the denial of means used to effect it. The first Hardshells who believed in means, in the 1830s, for instance, believed that regeneration and conversion could not be divorced, but those Hardshells who forsook the means view were forced to alter their description of regeneration.
What is the Hardshell View?
This is not always an easy question to ask - "what is the Hardshell view?" This is because there is not unanimity of opinion on certain issues. Also, the first generation of Hardshell leaders, in the 1830's, believed much differently on certain things than do today's Hardshells.
Let us now look at the chief passages involved in this discussion.
Passage #1
"But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more." (Jer. 31: 33-34)
Notice the two expressions "I will put" and "I will write." God puts or places his law in the "inward parts" and writes his words in the heart. There is no need to ascertain the precise distinction between "inward parts" and "heart." Both denote the very core of being, the soul and its spiritual, moral, and rational faculties.
Other similar prophecies, as we shall see, speak of this same work being done in the "mind" as well as in the heart. In fact, Paul's citation of Jeremiah's prophecy has "mind" for "inward parts."
What Is The Intended Effect?
The effect of this work of God in the inward parts, in the heart, and in the soul, is to cause people to "know" Lord God. Knowing God, in this context, implies understanding and cognition. This represents a great difficulty or hermeneutical problem for the Hardshells. Another effect is to know the truth, about God, and the scheme of salvation through the work of Christ. What did David mean when he said - "Behold, thou desirest truth in the inward parts: and in the hidden part thou shalt make me to know wisdom"? (Psa. 51: 6) Notice that having the truth in the heart of the soul involves knowledge, or cognition. It involves conscious thought.
What is the intended effect of God's work of putting his law into the inward parts and of writing his word upon the tablet of the heart? This is a very difficult question for a Hardshell. All that they can do is to retreat to that common way of speaking of the purpose of regeneration, which is to simply give an "ability" to act spiritually and righteously. But, this is hardly what is intended by the Lord. He does not merely make sinners capable of learning, by writing his word upon the heart, but actually teaches them. They are not only given ability to know God, but they actually come to know him.
To write something upon the heart is the same thing as to write it in the memory. When something is written on paper, an impression is made in the paper. Job spoke of a pen of iron writing on stone as on paper. It is a kind of engraving. God engraves his word upon the heart and mind by impressing his word upon the thinking faculties. We might say, in keeping with Scriptural metaphor, that he "burns" his word into the moral fiber of our rational and spiritual being. Notice these verses:
"Let not mercy and truth forsake thee: bind them about thy neck; write them upon the table of thine heart." (Prov. 3: 3)
"My son, keep my words, and lay up my commandments with thee. Keep my commandments, and live; and my law as the apple of thine eye. Bind them upon thy fingers, write them upon the table of thine heart." (Prov. 7: 1-3)
In these verses people are commanded to write God's word upon their hearts, the very thing he promised to do himself. Is there a contradiction? How do the Hardshells solve the difficulty?
It is not uncommon for God to command the people to do what he promises to do himself. For instance, God promises, and actually does, "circumcise" the heart (Rom. 2: 29; Phi. 3: 3; etc.), yet he also says to people - "Circumcise yourselves to the Lord" (Jer. 4: 4: Deut. 10: 16). Also, he promises to give a "new heart" and to put a "new spirit" within people (Eze. 36: 26-27), yet he also says to them - "make you a new heart and a new spirit" (Eze. 18: 31). Only Hardshells see these things as contradictory. Because of their unscriptural presuppositions and false premises they cannot admit that the same thing is being denoted. Doing so would force him into giving up his anti means view.
So, what is our intended effect when we do as commanded and write God's word upon our hearts? Is it not that we will have God's word "always in remembrance"? (II Peter 1: 12) That it will be burned into our conscious memory? Of course. Is it any different when God writes his word upon our hearts or places in our minds his teachings? Further, Peter said this was his assigned work, to keep the saints reminded, to keep writing things upon the mind's memory. Remember too that God was working through Peter so that it was the work of God to keep the believer always in remembrance, and this is in fulfillment of his promise to write his word continuously in hearts and minds.
David prayed:
"Your word I have hidden in my heart, That I might not sin against You" (Psalm 119:11).
David placed God's word in his heart! The very thing God said he would do! When will the Hardshells understand that one does not exclude the other? They think that if God writes, then this excludes any writing done by the apostles in their teaching ministries, and also excludes the writing the believer himself does. But, this is just illogical and also against plain scripture.
How Does One Come To Know?
As stated, the prophecy of Jeremiah speaks of people coming to know the Lord and this via coming to know his word by the teaching work of God. He, like a teacher, will put within the mind of his students the lessons he has designed for them to learn and know. He, as a teacher, writes upon the heart and memory those lessons. Did not Jesus explain this?
“No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day. It is written in the prophets, ‘and they shall all be taught of God.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me." (John 6: 44-45)
Notice that it is the work of the Father to teach all the chosen people, so that they hear and learn from the Father. Who can doubt that this is the manner in which God puts his law in the inward parts and the manner in which he writes his word in the heart and mind? All this cries COGNITION. People do not hear and learn on the subconscious level. How can they know a God that they have heard and learned nothing about?
God's Continuous Writing
Further, the words "I will put," means "continually giving my laws." The Hebrew tense denotes what is an ongoing or continuous action rather than what is done in an instant. This is detrimental to the Hardshell idea that all the laws are written, or secretly encoded, in the soul's DNA, when it is regenerated or divinely begotten. The work of writing the word of God on the heart then, is not only what takes place in the instant of regeneration, but what takes place throughout the life after regeneration, being a part of sanctification.
It is doubtful that any Hardshell today would affirm that God is continually writing his word in the hearts of his covenant people after their regeneration, because 1) this would tend to overthrow their thesis that the word written in the heart is all done in the subconscious region of the heart and mind (since a continual writing would lend towards a writing that results in cognition of truth propositions), and 2) they do not believe that there is any work after regeneration in which the believer is passive.
The Covenant With God
The covenant that is the source or reason for the regenerating work of God is made between God and the people saved. In the text it is "I will make a covenant with the house of Israel." It is a covenant between God and people. This poses another difficulty for the Hardshells. Where, in their understanding of the experience of regeneration, does a person agree with God, and enter into covenant with him? Of course, the Hardshell can only respond by saying that Jesus, representing him, made the covenant with God (the Father) on his behalf. Of course this is true, the error of the Hardshell consists in his not seeing how people enter into the blessings of the new covenant (all which pertain to salvation) by faith, by agreeing with God, which is the chief meaning of homologeo, the Greek word for confess.
Entering the Covenant by Heartfelt Confession
"That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved." (Rom. 10: 9)
Strong says that the Greek word means "to say the same thing as another, i.e. to agree with, assent." He also says it means "to concede, to promise." When two people get married, they each say the same thing, "I do." That is, I agree, I assent, I confess or acknowledge. They not only agree, but they make promises. So too when sinners join with Christ and become one with him.
Hardshells acknowledge that people make covenant with God, as literally, really, and personally, as did the Israelites on Mt. Sinai. In the making of that covenant, the terms were clear to both parties. So, also in the new. Christ agrees to save and lead and the sinner agrees for Christ to save and lead him. That is the covenant and it is entered into by a God given faith. But, the Hardshell insists that such a making of covenant with God, or being converted, is not necessary to be finally and eternally saved.
Vital Union With Christ
The adept Hardshell apologist will often attempt to solve many difficulties about the necessity of union with Christ for salvation by ignoring "vital union" and stressing representative or federal union through Christ. The latter does not require regeneration, conversion, faith, repentance, etc., as does the former. He will also affirm that a real "vital union" does occur in Hardshell definitions of "regeneration," but insist that faith and repentance are not means or conditions to such a union with Christ.
So, then, is that union with Christ, per Romans 7:4, an essential aspect of regeneration? Does one have to have a vital marital union with Christ to be eternally saved? How can the anti means Hardshell say yes without contradicting himself? Will he not hold on to his anti means proposition so that he will be forced to say that one does not have to have a marital union with Christ, or enter into covenant with him, to be saved? He will have to say that the "vital union" that occurs in a Hardshell "regeneration" does not include being joined to Christ as a spouse?
Wrote Paul:
"But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." (I Cor. 6: 17)
In the context of this verse Paul contrasts being joined in body versus being joined in heart and spirit. A man who has sexual intercourse with a whore, said Paul, becomes "one" with her, that is, one in body. How does one become united with, or one with, Christ? How does he enter into covenant with him? It is all by saying and confessing "I will" to the Spirit who testifies of Christ. There are many verses that speak of a faith union with Christ.
It is doubtful that Hardshells will deny that there is a union with Christ by faith, but they will insist that 1) this is no part of the "vital union" created in regeneration apart from faith, and that 2) this is not necessary for being eternally saved.
Passage #2
"A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them." (Eze. 36: 26-27)
What does it mean to have a "new heart" and a "new spirit"? Does it represent a physical change in the soul and spirit, as many of today's Hardshells teach, rather than a moral change? Is it something that actually changes a man's thoughts and beliefs? Or, is it the mere giving of an ability to perhaps later change thought and belief? If a man was a pagan or polytheist before obtaining a new heart and spirit, will he remain such? That is the crucial question. Nearly all of today's Hardshells insist that many people who live and die believing in a false religion, and in false gods, nevertheless were people who had that new heart and spirit.
Whatever the precise nature of the new heart and spirit, it is given for the purpose of effecting a change in behavior. Belief always changes behavior. Behavior reflects belief. Notice the three links in the chain of causes and effects. God gives a new heart and spirit, which causes change in belief, which then causes change in behavior. The new heart and spirit signify a change in the moral nature, in character. It is simply absurd for the Hardshells to say that many have experienced this change and are yet "unbelievers." A regenerated unbeliever! The Bible knows of no such character. He is a figment of the Hardshell imagination.