"Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference." (Rom. 3:22 KJV)
Why does the inspired apostle say "unto all and upon all" (εἰς πάντας καὶ ἐπὶ πάντας)?
Why the double use of prepositions "unto" ("eis") and "upon" ("epi")? What is the difference, if any, between "unto all" and "upon all"? Is it a redundancy? Meaning the same thing? Highly unlikely. Calvin, however, in his commentary said: "Unto all and upon all, etc. For the sake of amplifying, he repeats the same thing in different forms..." But why such a redundancy here and not generally elsewhere?
I will not enter into dispute over whether the above reading is the preferred (many ancient manuscripts leave out the double preposition) but will accept the above as canonical.
"Unto all"
This unquestionably means "towards all men without distinction (or difference)." Is the gospel (and the righteousness of Christ) not "unto all"? Is it not to be preached to "all the world" and "every creature" per the great commission? Does "unto all" not show the extension of saving mercy to all through faith in the work of Christ? Does it not show that "God is not willing that any should perish"? (II Peter 3:9) Does it not show that God "has no pleasure in the death of the wicked"? (Ezekiel 18:23; 33:11) Does it not show that "God will have all to be saved and come unto a knowledge of the truth"? (I Tim 2: 4)
Wrote the learned Albert Barnes in his commentary (highlighting mine):
"Unto all and upon all - It is evident that these expressions are designed to be emphatic, but why both are used is not very apparent. Many have supposed that there was no essential difference in the meaning. If there be a difference, it is probably this: the first expression, "unto all" εἰς πᾶς eis pas, may denote that this plan of justification has come "(Luther)" unto all men, to Jews and Gentiles; that is, that it has been provided for them, and offered to them without distinction. The plan was ample for all, was suited for all, was equally necessary for all, and was offered to all."
I am sure in my own mind that the apostle intends by "unto all" to mean that salvation, via the gospel and faith in it, is sent to all men without any distinction of social status.
"Upon All"
Barnes continued:
"The second phrase, "upon all" ἐπὶ πᾶντας epi pantas, may be designed to guard against the supposition that all therefore would be benefited by it, or be saved by the mere fact that the announcement had come to all. The apostle adds therefore, that the benefits of this plan must actually come upon all, or must be applied to all, if they would be justified. They could not be justified merely by the fact that the plan was provided, and that the knowledge of it had come to all, but by their actually coming under this plan, and availing themselves of it."
Salvation consists in one being in the number designated by the second preposition (epi). For salvation to be "towards" or "unto" (eis) a person does not guarantee salvation for that person. However, salvation consists in one being in the number designated by those intended by "epi."
Here is what some others have said (all emphasis mine):
Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible
"...that is, perhaps, brought nigh “unto all” men the Gospel, and actually “upon all” believing men, as theirs in possession [Luther and others]; but most interpreters understand both statements” of believers as only a more emphatic way of saying that all believers, without distinction or exception, are put in possession of this gratuitous justification, purely by faith in Christ Jesus."
"Most interpreters" are wrong in understanding Paul to be emphasizing by repetition.
Godet said:
"It is quite in keeping with Paul"s manner thus to accumulate subordinate clauses to express by a change of prepositions the different aspects of the moral fact which he means to describe. These two aspects in this case are those of general destination ( εἰς, for) and personal application ( ἐπί, upon): "As to this righteousness, God sends it for thee that thou mayest believe in it; and it will rest on thee from the moment thou believest." Comp. Philippians 3:9. Theodoret, Bengel, etc. have thought that the clause: for all them, applied to the Jews, and the clause: upon all them, to the Gentiles. But the very object the apostle has here in view is to efface every other distinction save that of believing."
Haldane well expressed my views when he wrote in his famous commentary on Romans:
"This righteousness is unto all. — It is set before all, and proclaimed to all, according to the commandment of our blessed Lord, — ’ Go ye into all the world, and preach the Gospel to every creature.’ Upon all, is connected with the words that follow, viz., them that believe. While it is proclaimed to all men, it is actually upon believers. It is not put into them, as their sanctification is brought in the soul by the Holy Spirit; but it is placed upon them as a robe:--’He hath covered me with the robe of righteousness, ’ Isaiah 61:10. It is the white raiment given by Jesus Christ to them who hear His voice, that they may be clothed, and that the shame of their nakedness may not appear, Revelation 3:18. It is the fine linen, clean and white, with which the bride, the Lamb’s wife, is arrayed; for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints, Revelation 19:8. Thus Jesus Christ is made of God, to them that are in Him, righteousness, Corinthians 1:30."
Amen.
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